5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He demonstrates severe shoulder weakness and an inability to actively externally rotate his arm, with a positive hornblower sign. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of the infraspinatus muscle and vague posterior shoulder pain. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

A 30-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. For an anatomic repair, where should the avulsed tendon be reattached?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic pseudoparalysis of the shoulder due to a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and preserved deltoid function. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore active external rotation and forward elevation?

A 40-year-old male presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain. MRI shows a subscapularis tear and medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps tendon. Which anatomic structure must be compromised for the biceps tendon to subluxate medially?

In the evaluation of chronic massive rotator cuff tears, the Goutallier classification is used to assess fatty infiltration on CT or MRI. What does Goutallier stage 3 signify?

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague, deep, posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding is most expected?

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention given his age and activity level?

During an arthroscopic anterior shoulder stabilization for recurrent instability, the surgeon notes an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion. How does this lesion uniquely differ from a classic Bankart lesion?

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. MRI reveals an isolated Type II Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior (SLAP) tear. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with weakness in external rotation, but normal strength in forward elevation and abduction. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has significant weakness in external rotation, a positive hornblower's sign, but intact forward elevation and a functional subscapularis. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

A 34-year-old man suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated Hill-Sachs lesion. On preoperative MRI, the glenoid track is calculated. The lesion is determined to be "off-track." What are the biomechanical implications of this finding?

A 35-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 29-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely present?

When performing open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture using a locking plate, what is the most important technical factor to prevent varus collapse?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopy reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What is the primary biomechanical mechanism causing this specific injury in throwing athletes?