This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6301
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During arthroscopic evaluation of a patient with anterior shoulder pain and a positive belly-press test, an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon is identified. Which anatomical structure is consistently utilized as a landmark identifying the superior border of the subscapularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps long head tendon
Explanation
The long head of the biceps tendon, located within the bicipital groove, serves as a crucial anatomical landmark that separates the superior border of the subscapularis (lesser tuberosity) from the supraspinatus (greater tuberosity).
Question 6302
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old male presents with massive rotator cuff tear. On physical examination, he demonstrates a positive Hornblower's sign. Which muscle is primarily deficient, and what is the typical pathomorphologic finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus; fatty infiltration of the superior cuff
Explanation
Hornblower's sign (inability to externally rotate the shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction, leading the patient to drop the elbow and use the deltoid) is highly specific for severe degeneration or fatty infiltration of the teres minor. It indicates profound posterior cuff dysfunction.
Question 6303
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old athlete sustained a knee injury. The Dial test is performed. The examiner notes >10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but equal external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This isolated finding is most indicative of injury to which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
Explanation
An increase in external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If asymmetry is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 6304
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain that worsens with deep flexion. The FADIR (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) test elicits sharp groin pain. Imaging reveals a substantial alpha angle. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ischiofemoral impingement
Explanation
The FADIR test is highly sensitive for anterior femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and labral pathology. An increased alpha angle (>50-55 degrees) on the frog-leg lateral or Dunn view indicates a Cam-type FAI deformity.
Question 6305
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During an evaluation for shoulder pain, the patient holds their arm in 90 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and maximal internal rotation (thumb down). Downward force elicits deep shoulder pain. The pain is relieved when the test is repeated in maximal external rotation (palm up). This clinical finding is most specific for pathology of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acromioclavicular joint
Explanation
The O'Brien active compression test is primarily used to evaluate for SLAP tears and AC joint pathology. If the pain is described as 'deep' inside the shoulder and is relieved by external rotation, it is indicative of a SLAP tear. If the pain is localized to the top of the shoulder over the AC joint, it points to AC joint pathology.
Question 6306
Topic: Knee Sports
A 35-year-old male complains of medial knee joint line catching. The examiner stands the patient on the affected leg, flexes the knee to 20 degrees, and asks the patient to internally and externally rotate their body over the knee. This maneuver reproduces the medial pain. What is the name of this test, and what is its primary purpose?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. McMurray test; evaluate for ACL tear
Explanation
The Thessaly test involves the patient standing flatfooted on one leg while the examiner supports them, and the patient twists their body internally and externally with the knee flexed at 5 and then 20 degrees. It is a highly sensitive and specific clinical test for meniscal tears.
Question 6307
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a massive, retracted tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Biologically, which of the following best describes the healing process at the tendon-to-bone interface following a successful repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Formation of a fibrovascular scar tissue layer without recreating the native tidemark
Explanation
Following surgical repair of a rotator cuff tear, the tendon-to-bone interface heals via the formation of a fibrovascular scar tissue layer, predominantly consisting of Type III collagen that eventually remodels to Type I. It does not regenerate the native four-zone direct insertion (tendon, uncalcified fibrocartilage, calcified fibrocartilage, bone) present developmentally.
Question 6308
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During the Active Compression Test (O'Brien's test), a patient experiences deep shoulder pain when the arm is in 90 degrees of forward flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and internal rotation (thumb pointing down). The pain is entirely relieved by external rotation (thumb pointing up). Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acromioclavicular joint
Explanation
O'Brien's test evaluates for SLAP tears and AC joint pathology. Deep, internal shoulder pain elicited with the thumb down and relieved with the thumb up is highly specific for a Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) lesion. AC joint pain would typically localize superiorly over the joint.
Question 6309
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old female complains of weakness and anterior shoulder pain. The examiner places the patient's palm on her contralateral shoulder and asks her to resist as the examiner tries to pull the hand anteriorly away from the shoulder. She is unable to resist the pull. Which tendon is likely torn?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus
Explanation
The described maneuver is the Bear Hug test, which is highly sensitive and specific for identifying tears of the subscapularis tendon. Weakness in maintaining internal rotation in this position indicates a functional deficit of the subscapularis.
Question 6310
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old swimmer undergoes apprehension and relocation tests of the shoulder. Anterior apprehension is noted, which is subsequently relieved when the examiner applies a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus (relocation test). The relief of apprehension during this maneuver is most specific for what pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal impingement
Explanation
The apprehension-relocation test is the clinical standard for diagnosing anterior glenohumeral instability. Relief of the subjective feeling of impending dislocation (apprehension, not just pain) with a posteriorly directed force confirms anterior capsulolabral insufficiency.
Question 6311
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a physical exam, a patient demonstrates an inability to maintain maximal external rotation of the shoulder when the examiner places the arm in 20 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation. Upon release, the arm drifts into internal rotation. Which tendon is most likely involved?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis
Explanation
The external rotation lag sign at 20 degrees of abduction is highly specific for evaluating the integrity of the infraspinatus tendon. An inability to actively hold the externally rotated position indicates significant infraspinatus dysfunction or tearing.
Question 6312
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old hockey player complains of insidious onset groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts, and internally rotates the thigh (FADIR test), which reproduces sharp anterior groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Athletic pubalgia
Explanation
The anterior impingement test (FADIR) brings the femoral neck into direct contact with the anterior and superior acetabular rim. It is highly sensitive for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and associated anterior labral pathology.
Question 6313
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. O'Brien's active compression test is positive, eliciting pain with internal rotation that is relieved by external rotation. What is the most likely injured structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acromioclavicular joint
Explanation
O'Brien's active compression test targets the SLAP lesion. Deep joint pain with internal rotation that is relieved by external rotation is the classic positive finding for a superior labral tear.
Question 6314
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. A Belly Press test is equivocal, but the Bear Hug test is strongly positive with inability to hold the hand to the opposite shoulder against resistance. Which portion of the affected muscle is most likely compromised?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Upper subscapularis
Explanation
The Bear Hug test is highly sensitive for upper subscapularis pathology. The Belly Press test primarily evaluates the lower subscapularis.
Question 6315
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, then adducts and internally rotates it, strictly reproducing the patient's sharp groin pain. This test (FADIR) is most sensitive for diagnosing which condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip osteoarthritis
Explanation
The FADIR test (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) creates anterior impingement in the hip joint. It is highly sensitive for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and anterior labral tears.
Question 6316
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient with a complex knee injury demonstrates greater than 10 degrees of increased external rotation at BOTH 30 degrees and 90 degrees of knee flexion during the Dial test, compared to the contralateral side. This specific examination finding indicates combined injury to which structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ACL and MCL
Explanation
Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 6317
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the relocation test is performed by applying a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus while the arm is abducted and externally rotated. What specific clinical response constitutes a true positive relocation test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reduction of a subluxated joint with an audible clunk
Explanation
The apprehension test elicits a feeling of impending dislocation. The relocation test is considered positive only when the posteriorly directed force relieves the patient's apprehension, not merely when it relieves pain.
Question 6318
Topic: Knee Sports
During an evaluation of a 22-year-old soccer player with a knee injury, a pivot shift test is performed. As the knee is brought from extension to flexion with a valgus stress and internal rotation applied, a clunk is felt at 20-30 degrees of flexion. Which anatomical structure is responsible for the reduction of the tibia during this test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
In a positive pivot shift test for ACL deficiency, the tibia starts subluxated anteriorly. As the knee flexes past 20-30 degrees, the iliotibial band transitions from an extensor to a flexor, pulling the tibia posteriorly and reducing the joint with a palpable clunk.
Question 6319
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old patient presents with shoulder pain after a lifting injury. The examiner performs the "bear hug" test by placing the patient's palm on their opposite shoulder and resisting the patient's attempt to press the hand downward. Weakness in this maneuver most specifically indicates a tear of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus
Explanation
The bear hug test evaluates the subscapularis muscle. It is considered the most sensitive clinical test for detecting upper subscapularis tendon tears compared to the belly-press or lift-off tests.
Question 6320
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old male complains of groin pain with deep hip flexion. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts it, and internally rotates the thigh, which reproduces the patient's sharp groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ischiofemoral impingement
Explanation
The Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation (FADIR) test is highly sensitive for anterior femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and labral pathology. It forces the femoral neck against the anterior acetabular rim.
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