Menu

Question 4421

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When evaluating a patient for an anterior shoulder stabilization procedure, the Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) is used to predict the risk of recurrence after an arthroscopic Bankart repair. Which of the following factors increases the ISIS score?

. Age older than 30 years
. Participation in competitive contact sports
. Female gender
. Absence of a Hill-Sachs lesion
. Participation in recreational swimming

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age older than 30 years


Explanation

The ISIS evaluates recurrence risk. Risk factors include age under 20 years, competitive sports, contact or forced overhead sports, shoulder hyperlaxity, visible Hill-Sachs on AP radiograph, and glenoid loss on AP radiograph.

Question 4422

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The transverse force couple of the shoulder is crucial for maintaining the humeral head centered within the glenoid during active elevation. This force couple relies on the balanced action of which of the following muscle groups?

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid
. Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi
. Subscapularis and the Infraspinatus/Teres minor
. Trapezius and Serratus anterior
. Rhomboids and Levator scapulae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid


Explanation

The transverse force couple is composed anteriorly by the subscapularis and posteriorly by the infraspinatus and teres minor. Disruption of this balance in massive cuff tears leads to altered kinematics and dysfunction.

Question 4423

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient is evaluated for anterior shoulder pain. The examiner places the patient's arm in forward flexion, internal rotation, and cross-body adduction, which recreates the patient's sharp anterior pain. Imaging reveals a narrowed coracohumeral distance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis
. Subcoracoid impingement
. SLAP tear
. Internal impingement
. Posterior labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement occurs when the subscapularis tendon is compressed between the coracoid process and the lesser tuberosity. Provocative positioning includes forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction.

Question 4424

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old physical laborer presents with persistent deep shoulder pain. MR arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupation, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment if conservative management fails?

. Arthroscopic anatomical SLAP repair with anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression
. Open Mumford procedure
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anatomical SLAP repair with anchors


Explanation

In older patients (typically >40-50 years), arthroscopic repair of Type II SLAP tears is associated with high failure rates and postoperative stiffness. Biceps tenodesis provides superior functional outcomes and pain relief in this demographic.

Question 4425

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals an "inverted pear" glenoid with 25% anterior bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

An "inverted pear" glenoid indicates significant anterior bone loss (>20-25%). This structural deficit is a contraindication to isolated soft-tissue stabilization and requires a bone-block procedure such as a Latarjet.

Question 4426

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine



A 35-year-old man presents to the ER after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs show a posterior shoulder dislocation. MRI reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and spica cast
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Lesser tuberosity transfer into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica cast


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (anteromedial humeral head defect) involving 20-40% of the articular surface is best treated with a lesser tuberosity transfer (modified McLaughlin) or structural allograft to prevent recurrent posterior instability.

Question 4427

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man sustains a traumatic forced external rotation injury to his shoulder. He demonstrates a positive belly-press test and increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI confirms an isolated, full-thickness subscapularis tendon tear. During arthroscopic repair, which of the following additional findings is most likely to be encountered?

. Medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear
. Spinoglenoid notch cyst
. Os acromiale
. Subacromial bursitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps


Explanation

The superior border of the subscapularis tendon contributes to the biceps pulley mechanism. Complete subscapularis tears are highly associated with medial subluxation or dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 4428

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports



A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. This lesion most likely originated from which of the following pathologies?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterosuperior labral tear
. Subscapularis tendon tear
. SLAP type IV tear
. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart lesion


Explanation

Spinoglenoid notch cysts strongly correlate with posterosuperior labral tears. A one-way valve effect allows joint fluid to accumulate, compressing the suprascapular nerve and causing isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 4429

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a patient asks about the expected timeline for tendon-to-bone healing. Biomechanically, which type of collagen initially predominates at the healing tendon-bone interface before being remodeled into a stronger, more mature construct?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type X

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

During the initial proliferative phase of tendon-to-bone healing, fibroblasts lay down predominantly Type III collagen, which is disorganized and mechanically weaker. Over several months, this tissue remodels into stronger, highly organized Type I collagen.

Question 4430

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine



During diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes that the anterior labrum is avulsed but remains attached to the intact anterior scapular periosteum, having healed medially along the glenoid neck. This specific pathology is known as:

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLOM lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

An Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion occurs when the anterior labrum strips medially with an intact periosteum. It must be surgically mobilized and shifted laterally to its anatomical footprint before fixation.

Question 4431

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female competitive swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of "looseness." Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 7/9), and no distinct history of trauma. Initial management for this condition should focus on:

. Arthroscopic plication of the rotator interval
. Arthroscopic inferior capsular shift
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Scapular stabilizer and rotator cuff strengthening
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic plication of the rotator interval


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and bilateral. The gold standard for initial management is an extended course (usually >6 months) of targeted physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening.

Question 4432

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to the nerves innervating the subscapularis muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of which cord of the brachial plexus?

. Lateral cord
. Medial cord
. Poster cord
. Anterior cord
. Superior trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral cord


Explanation

The upper and lower subscapular nerves originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. They provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle, with the lower subscapular nerve also innervating the teres major.

Question 4433

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player undergoes arthroscopy for refractory shoulder pain. A partial articular-sided tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion of the supraspinatus is identified. At what depth of tendon involvement is completion of the tear and full-thickness repair generally recommended?

. Greater than 10%
. Greater than 25%
. Greater than 50%
. Only when it extends to the bursal surface
. Only when accompanied by a SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 10%


Explanation

For partial articular-sided rotator cuff tears (PASTA lesions), surgical management principles dictate that tears involving >50% of the tendon thickness (typically >6 mm) should be completed and repaired to restore optimal biomechanical strength.

Question 4434

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with pain during the late cocking phase of throwing and a "dead arm" sensation. MRI shows a Type II SLAP tear. If nonoperative management fails, what is the preferred surgical intervention to allow return to his prior level of competitive pitching?

. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Biceps tenotomy
. Open anterior capsulolabral reconstruction
. Coracoid transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In young, elite overhead throwing athletes, arthroscopic repair of a Type II SLAP tear remains the standard of care to restore the native tension of the biceps-labral complex. Tenodesis is generally reserved for older patients (>35-40 years) or non-throwers.

Question 4435

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Following an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction utilizing a soft-tissue hamstring autograft, the graft typically secures within the osseous tunnels via which healing mechanism?

. Direct primary bone healing
. Formation of Sharpey's fibers (indirect healing)
. Endochondral ossification
. A four-zone fibrocartilage transition identical to the native enthesis
. Intramembranous ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct primary bone healing


Explanation

Soft tissue tendon grafts heal within bone tunnels via indirect healing, characterized by the formation of perpendicular Sharpey's fibers spanning the tendon-bone interface. This differs from bone-tendon-bone grafts, which heal much faster via direct bone-to-bone incorporation.

Question 4436

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following biologic properties is characteristic of a fresh autogenous cancellous bone graft but is NOT typically found in a structural cortical allograft?

. Osteoconduction
. Structural support
. Osteoinduction and osteogenesis
. Disease transmission risk
. High initial mechanical strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoconduction


Explanation

Cancellous autograft possesses osteogenic (live cells), osteoinductive (growth factors), and osteoconductive properties. Cortical allograft is primarily osteoconductive and provides structural support, but lacks live cells and robust osteoinduction.

Question 4437

Topic: Knee Sports

During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner of the knee, the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) and popliteus tendon (PT) are identified. What is the anatomic relationship of their femoral attachments?

. The FCL attaches proximal and posterior to the PT
. The FCL attaches distal and anterior to the PT
. The FCL attaches proximal and anterior to the PT
. The FCL attaches distal and posterior to the PT
. They share a conjoined attachment on the lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The FCL attaches proximal and posterior to the PT


Explanation

On the lateral femoral condyle, the attachment of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) is consistently located proximal and posterior to the attachment of the popliteus tendon.

Question 4438

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following structures is NOT considered a border or content of the rotator interval in the shoulder?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the supraspinatus superiorly, the subscapularis inferiorly, and the coracoid medially. It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and long head of the biceps; the teres minor is located posteriorly.

Question 4439

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical function of the posterolateral (PL) bundle?

. It is tightest in full extension and provides primary restraint to internal rotation.
. It is tightest in 90 degrees of flexion and provides primary restraint to anterior translation.
. It is tightest in full extension and provides primary restraint to posterior translation.
. It is tightest in 90 degrees of flexion and provides primary restraint to valgus stress.
. It is tightest in full extension and provides primary restraint to external rotation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is tightest in full extension and provides primary restraint to internal rotation.


Explanation

The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL is tightest in extension and primarily controls rotatory stability (internal rotation). The anteromedial (AM) bundle is tightest in flexion and primarily restricts anterior tibial translation.

Question 4440

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following bone graft options possesses osteogenic, osteoinductive, and osteoconductive properties?

. Demineralized bone matrix
. Cancellous allograft
. Iliac crest autograft
. Calcium phosphate cement
. Bone morphogenetic protein-2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Demineralized bone matrix


Explanation

Autograft contains live cells (osteogenic), growth factors (osteoinductive), and a scaffold (osteoconductive). Demineralized bone matrix is only osteoinductive and osteoconductive, while allograft is mainly osteoconductive.