Menu

Question 4401

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with painless, isolated weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

Isolated external rotation weakness indicates isolated infraspinatus denervation, typically caused by suprascapular nerve compression at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 4402

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of a patient with a massive rotator cuff tear, which of the following factors on preoperative MRI is the strongest independent predictor of structural failure following surgical repair?

. Acromiohumeral distance of 8 mm
. Tear retraction to the level of the humeral head
. Goutallier stage 3 or 4 fatty infiltration of the muscle belly
. Presence of a subacromial spur
. Fluid in the subdeltoid bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromiohumeral distance of 8 mm


Explanation

Advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 3 or 4) and muscle atrophy are irreversible and strongly predict a high rate of structural failure and poor functional outcomes after rotator cuff repair.

Question 4403

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability has a glenoid track evaluated on CT. He has 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large Hill-Sachs lesion that extends outside the glenoid track. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Open capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim, leading to recurrent instability if treated with an isolated Bankart repair. Since the glenoid bone loss is subcritical (<20%), adding an arthroscopic remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) is indicated.

Question 4404

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI arthrogram shows no labral tear, but reveals contrast extravasation into the axillary pouch and the normal U-shape of the axillary recess is lost, appearing as a J-shape. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion presents with recurrent instability without a labral tear. On MRI arthrogram, the contrast leaking through the avulsed inferior glenohumeral ligament creates the characteristic "J-sign".

Question 4405

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old overhead athlete undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for chronic pain. An articular-sided, partial-thickness supraspinatus tear (PASTA lesion) is identified. Debridement reveals the tear involves 60% of the tendon footprint thickness. What is the recommended management?

. Debridement alone
. Acromioplasty alone
. In situ single-row repair
. Completion of the tear and full-thickness repair
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement alone


Explanation

For articular-sided partial-thickness rotator cuff tears involving greater than 50% of the tendon thickness, surgical repair is indicated. Standard treatment involves completing the tear and performing a full-thickness repair to ensure adequate biomechanical strength.

Question 4406

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of instability. Physical exam reveals generalized ligamentous laxity, a positive sulcus sign, and apprehension with anterior, posterior, and inferior translation. She has failed 6 months of targeted physical therapy. What is the next best step in management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Arthroscopic capsular plication and shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Continued physical therapy for another 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

This patient has multidirectional instability (MDI) that has failed an extensive trial of conservative management. The appropriate surgical intervention for refractory MDI is a capsular shift to globally reduce capsular volume.

Question 4407

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old woman presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by forward elevation and internal rotation. MRI reveals a narrowed coracohumeral interval measuring 5 mm, edema in the subcoracoid space, and a partial-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subacromial impingement
. Internal impingement
. Subcoracoid impingement
. SLAP tear
. Adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial impingement


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement occurs when the coracohumeral interval is narrowed (typically <6-7 mm), trapping the subscapularis tendon. It presents with anterior pain worse with internal rotation and forward elevation, often leading to subscapularis tears.

Question 4408

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram demonstrates contrast extending between the superior labrum and the glenoid, and arthroscopy reveals the superior labrum and biceps anchor are completely detached from the superior glenoid. What type of SLAP tear is this?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

A Type II SLAP tear involves detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the superior glenoid. It is the most common type of SLAP tear in overhead athletes.

Question 4409

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The "rotator cable" is a thick fibrous band of tissue running perpendicular to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscle fibers. Its primary function is to stress-shield which of the following adjacent structures?

. The coracohumeral ligament
. The long head of the biceps tendon
. The rotator crescent
. The subscapularis insertion
. The glenoid labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator cable acts similarly to a suspension bridge, transferring stress away from the thinner, relatively avascular distal portion of the rotator cuff insertions known as the rotator crescent. This crescent is the most common site for degenerative rotator cuff tears.

Question 4410

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a locked left shoulder in internal rotation following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. Which of the following associated lesions is most likely present?

. Classic Bankart lesion
. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)
. Impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Classic Bankart lesion


Explanation

Posterior shoulder dislocations are classically associated with seizures or electrocution and present locked in internal rotation. The impaction of the anteromedial humeral head against the posterior glenoid rim creates a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 4411

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated external rotation weakness and posterior shoulder pain. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will result in denervation of which of the following muscles?

. Supraspinatus only
. Infraspinatus only
. Both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus only


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch selectively affects the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.

Question 4412

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with his fifth anterior shoulder dislocation.

3D CT imaging reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in a contact athlete is a strong indication for a bone block procedure, such as the Latarjet. An isolated arthroscopic soft-tissue repair carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario.

Question 4413

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with pain in the posterosuperior aspect of his throwing shoulder during the late cocking phase. Examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees. What is the primary underlying pathomechanism?

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis
. Impingement of the supraspinatus against the coracoacromial arch
. Contact between the posterosuperior labrum and the articular surface of the rotator cuff
. Dynamic subluxation of the long head of the biceps
. Avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs during maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase), causing the articular surface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff to impinge against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. It is highly associated with GIRD and contracture of the posterior capsule.

Question 4414

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization for a patient with recurrent dislocations, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Which of the following procedures involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon into the humeral defect?

. Putti-Platt procedure
. Magnuson-Stack procedure
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. McLaughlin procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Putti-Platt procedure


Explanation

The arthroscopic remplissage procedure involves suturing the infraspinatus tendon and the posterior capsule into an engaging Hill-Sachs defect. This converts the intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid.

Question 4415

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man sustains a shoulder dislocation. An MR arthrogram demonstrates extravasation of contrast into the axillary pouch, obliterating the normal U-shape and creating a "J-sign". This finding is pathognomonic for which of the following lesions?

. Classic Bankart lesion
. SLAP tear
. Perthes lesion
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. GLAD lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Classic Bankart lesion


Explanation

A HAGL lesion represents an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral attachment. On MR arthrogram, contrast leaks inferiorly through the axillary recess defect, forming the characteristic J-sign.

Question 4416

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes that the anterior labrum is completely torn and has medially displaced and healed along the anterior aspect of the glenoid neck. This pathology is correctly termed an:

. Engaging Hill-Sachs lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. SLAP type III lesion
. Kim lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Engaging Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

An Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion occurs when the torn labrum displaces medially and heals along the anterior glenoid neck. It must be completely mobilized back to the glenoid rim during repair.

Question 4417

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast complains of vague, bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of slipping. Examination reveals a prominent sulcus sign bilaterally, positive apprehension without a history of frank dislocation, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular stabilizers
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

This patient has Multidirectional Instability (MDI), characterized by generalized laxity and a positive sulcus sign. The first-line and mainstay of treatment is extensive physical therapy focusing on the rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizers.

Question 4418

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old construction worker fell onto an outstretched arm and now complains of anterior shoulder pain and weakness. Clinical examination demonstrates a positive Gerber's lift-off test and increased passive external rotation. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Pectoralis major tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear typically presents with weakness in internal rotation (positive lift-off or belly-press test) and an unresisted increase in passive external rotation.

Question 4419

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon places a self-retaining retractor medial to the conjoint tendon to expose the subscapularis. Excessive medial retraction in this area places which nerve at highest risk of injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the deep surface of the coracobrachialis 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Retracting the conjoint tendon too vigorously or too far medially during a Latarjet procedure risks stretching or damaging this nerve.

Question 4420

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 52-year-old laborer presents with a massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear. The subscapularis is intact, the deltoid is highly functional, and there is no evidence of glenohumeral osteoarthritis on radiographs. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears in younger, active patients without significant arthritis. An intact or repairable subscapularis and functional deltoid are prerequisites.