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Question 4441

Topic: Knee Sports

The primary restraint to valgus stress at the knee when tested at 30 degrees of flexion is the:

. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial meniscus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL) provides the vast majority of restraint to valgus forces at the knee. This is best isolated clinically at 30 degrees of flexion.

Question 4442

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During hip arthroscopy, prolonged traction against a perineal post can lead to a specific neuropathy. Which of the following clinical findings is most characteristic of this complication?

. Loss of knee extension
. Foot drop
. Numbness in the perineal region and potential erectile dysfunction
. Weakness in hip abduction
. Inability to flex the hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of knee extension


Explanation

Prolonged pressure against a perineal post during hip arthroscopy can compress the pudendal nerve, leading to perineal numbness and, in severe cases, erectile dysfunction in males.

Question 4443

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

When repairing a complete proximal hamstring avulsion, the surgeon must be careful to identify and protect the sciatic nerve. At the level of the ischial tuberosity, what is the anatomical relationship of the sciatic nerve to the hamstring origin?

. Medial and deep
. Lateral and superficial
. Lateral and deep
. Medial and superficial
. Directly anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial and deep


Explanation

At the level of the ischial tuberosity, the sciatic nerve lies lateral and deep to the common origin of the hamstring muscles, resting on the adductor magnus.

Question 4444

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old athlete presents with snapping hip syndrome. Ultrasound evaluation demonstrates snapping of a tendon over the iliopectineal eminence. Which structure inserts onto the lesser trochanter and is responsible for this internal snapping?

. Iliotibial band
. Rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas
. Sartorius
. Pectineus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band


Explanation

Internal snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or anterior femoral head as it travels to insert on the lesser trochanter.

Question 4445

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 15-year-old athlete experiences sudden anterior groin pain while sprinting. Imaging demonstrates an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). This injury is caused by the sudden contraction of which muscle?

. Rectus femoris
. Sartorius
. Iliopsoas
. Pectineus
. Gluteus minimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus femoris


Explanation

The straight head of the rectus femoris originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Sudden, forceful hip flexion or knee extension can avulse the AIIS apophysis.

Question 4446

Topic: Knee Sports

In an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)-deficient knee, which of the following structures acts as the primary secondary restraint to anterior tibial translation?

. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
. Iliotibial band
. Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus
. Medial collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus


Explanation

The posterior horn of the medial meniscus acts as the primary secondary wedge against anterior tibial translation in an ACL-deficient knee. This accounts for the high rate of medial meniscus tears seen in chronic ACL deficiency.

Question 4447

Topic: Knee Sports

During a lateral patellar dislocation, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is typically ruptured. Biomechanically, the MPFL provides its greatest contribution to restraining lateral patellar translation at which knee flexion angle?

. 0 to 30 degrees
. 45 to 60 degrees
. 60 to 90 degrees
. 90 to 120 degrees
. Greater than 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0 to 30 degrees


Explanation

The MPFL is the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation in early knee flexion (0 to 30 degrees). Beyond 30 degrees, the patella fully engages in the trochlear groove, and bony geometry dictates stability.

Question 4448

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 28-year-old athlete undergoes knee arthroscopy. The surgeon identifies a ligamentous structure originating from the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus and inserting on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, passing anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). What is this structure?

. Ligament of Wrisberg
. Ligament of Humphrey
. Arcuate ligament
. Oblique popliteal ligament
. Coronary ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligament of Wrisberg


Explanation

The meniscofemoral ligament of Humphrey passes anterior to the PCL. The ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the PCL.

Question 4449

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed, resulting in a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. The PCL consists of two functional bundles. Which of the following best describes their tension patterns during knee range of motion?

. The anterolateral bundle is taut in flexion, and the posteromedial bundle is taut in extension
. The anterolateral bundle is taut in extension, and the posteromedial bundle is taut in flexion
. Both bundles are taut in extension and lax in flexion
. Both bundles are taut in flexion and lax in extension
. Tension remains isometric in both bundles throughout the full arc of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is taut in flexion, and the posteromedial bundle is taut in extension


Explanation

The PCL's larger anterolateral (AL) bundle is primarily taut in flexion, preventing posterior translation of the tibia. The smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle becomes taut in extension.

Question 4450

Topic: Knee Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, careful attention is paid to the vascular supply of the notch. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the native ACL?

. Medial inferior genicular artery
. Lateral inferior genicular artery
. Middle genicular artery
. Descending genicular artery
. Anterior tibial recurrent artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial inferior genicular artery


Explanation

The middle genicular artery pierces the posterior capsule to provide the primary blood supply to the cruciate ligaments. It arborizes within the synovial fold enveloping the ACL and PCL.

Question 4451

Topic: Knee Sports

During a pivot shift test for an ACL deficient knee, the tibia subluxates anteriorly in extension and reduces in flexion. Which specific anatomic bundle of the ACL is primarily responsible for resisting rotatory loads and anterior translation near full knee extension?

. Anteromedial bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Anterolateral bundle
. Posterolateral bundle
. Meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteromedial bundle


Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament has two distinct bundles. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tight in extension and primarily controls rotatory stability, whereas the anteromedial (AM) bundle is tight in flexion and controls anterior translation.

Question 4452

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old athlete undergoes ACL reconstruction. During graft tensioning, the surgeon considers the kinematics of the native ACL bundles. Which of the following statements correctly describes the tension patterns of the native ACL bundles during knee range of motion?

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion, and the posterolateral bundle is tight in extension.
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in extension, and the posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion.
. Both bundles are tightest in terminal flexion.
. Both bundles are tightest in full extension.
. The anteromedial bundle primarily controls rotational stability rather than anterior translation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion, and the posterolateral bundle is tight in extension.


Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tight in knee flexion and primarily restrains anterior translation. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tight in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory loads.

Question 4453

Topic: Knee Sports

During clinical examination of knee kinematics, you observe the "screw-home" mechanism as the patient's knee reaches terminal extension. Which of the following best describes the osteokinematics and primary anatomical driver of this phenomenon?

. Internal rotation of the tibia on the femur driven by the popliteus
. External rotation of the tibia on the femur driven by the asymmetry of the femoral condyles
. Internal rotation of the femur on the tibia driven by the posterior cruciate ligament
. External rotation of the femur on the tibia driven by the anterior cruciate ligament
. Valgus alignment of the tibia driven by the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the tibia on the femur driven by the popliteus


Explanation

The screw-home mechanism involves obligatory external rotation of the tibia relative to the femur during terminal knee extension. This is primarily driven by the asymmetry of the femoral condyles, as the medial condyle has a larger articular surface than the lateral condyle.

Question 4454

Topic: Knee Sports

A 32-year-old male dashboard injury victim undergoes a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction. The surgeon opts for a double-bundle technique to anatomically restore native kinematics. Which of the following accurately describes the behavior of the native PCL bundles?

. The anterolateral bundle is tightest in full extension.
. The posteromedial bundle is tightest in deep flexion.
. The anterolateral bundle is the primary restraint to posterior translation in 90 degrees of flexion.
. The posteromedial bundle is larger and stiffer than the anterolateral bundle.
. Both bundles maintain constant, equal tension throughout the entire range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tightest in full extension.


Explanation

The native PCL consists of the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in knee flexion (maximal at 90 degrees) and restrains posterior translation, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension.

Question 4455

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Her abduction strength is completely normal (5/5). An MRI is likely to demonstrate a paralabral ganglion cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following locations?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus (abduction) and infraspinatus.

Question 4456

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old weightlifter presents with right posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following muscles is most likely denervated?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Deltoid
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch (innervating supraspinatus) and then the spinoglenoid notch (innervating infraspinatus). A compressive lesion exclusively at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus denervation.

Question 4457

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles that function synergistically throughout the knee's range of motion. In which position of the knee is the anteromedial (AM) bundle most taut?

. Full extension
. 30 degrees of flexion
. 60 degrees of flexion
. 90 degrees of flexion
. 120 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full extension


Explanation

The ACL has two distinct bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL). The AM bundle tightens in flexion and is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of flexion, whereas the PL bundle is tightest in extension.

Question 4458

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following structures is NOT a border or content of the rotator interval?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the supraspinatus (superiorly) and subscapularis (inferiorly). It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 4459

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The suprascapular nerve is at risk of entrapment at both the suprascapular notch and the spinoglenoid notch. An isolated lesion at the spinoglenoid notch will typically result in which of the following clinical findings?

. Weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation
. Isolated weakness of shoulder abduction
. Isolated weakness of shoulder external rotation
. Sensory loss over the lateral deltoid
. Scapular winging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation


Explanation

Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. The supraspinatus (abduction) is spared because its branches originate more proximally.

Question 4460

Topic: Knee Sports

During an open reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, the surgeon develops an interval between the biceps femoris and the iliotibial band. Which of the following neurovascular structures is at greatest risk during this approach, and what is its correct anatomical relationship?

. Tibial nerve; passes posterior to the fibular head
. Common peroneal nerve; wraps anteriorly around the fibular neck deep to the peroneus longus
. Common peroneal nerve; passes posterior to the fibular neck superficial to the lateral gastrocnemius
. Deep peroneal nerve; courses anteriorly over the fibular head in the subcutaneous tissue
. Sural nerve; crosses the lateral aspect of the fibular head deep to the soleus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial nerve; passes posterior to the fibular head


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve is highly vulnerable during surgical approaches to the posterolateral corner. It courses distally on the posterior aspect of the biceps femoris, then wraps anteriorly around the fibular neck deep to the fascia of the peroneus longus muscle.