Menu

Question 4201

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old girl dislocates her patella laterally. The primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation is ruptured. Where is the femoral footprint of this structure located?

. Anterior and distal to the medial epicondyle
. Between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
. At the medial condylar notch
. Just proximal to the medial joint line
. Directly on the adductor magnus tendon insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and distal to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is the primary restraint to lateral patellar dislocation. Its femoral attachment (Schöttle's point) is located in the saddle between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.

Question 4202

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old boy presents with mechanical catching in his knee. Radiographs confirm Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD). What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Anterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior patellar pole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (often remembered by the mnemonic LAME).

Question 4203

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old elite soccer player sustains an acute fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. He desires to return to play as quickly as possible. What is the most appropriate management?

. Non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks
. Intramedullary screw fixation
. Open reduction and plate fixation
. Excision of the proximal bone fragment
. Carbon fiber insert and immediate weight bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks


Explanation

A Jones fracture occurs in a vascular watershed area, predisposing it to nonunion. In elite athletes, early intramedullary screw fixation is the standard of care to expedite healing and return to play.

Question 4204

Topic: Knee Sports

During ACL reconstruction in a patient with a high-grade pivot shift, an anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction is considered. The ALL primarily acts to control which specific knee motion?

. Internal tibial rotation
. External tibial rotation
. Varus angulation
. Valgus angulation
. Posterior tibial translation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal tibial rotation


Explanation

The anterolateral ligament (ALL) functions as an important secondary stabilizer to the ACL. It specifically resists internal tibial rotation and helps eliminate the pivot shift phenomenon.

Question 4205

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player suffers from recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which surgical stabilization procedure is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Open capsular shift
. Isolated arthroscopic remplissage
. Subscapularis tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

In cases of recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft tissue repairs have unacceptably high failure rates. A bony augmentation such as the Latarjet procedure is required.

Question 4206

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old presents with deep ankle pain after an inversion injury 6 months ago. MRI shows a 1.2 cm osteochondral lesion on the medial talar dome. After failing conservative management, what is the standard first-line surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Osteochondral autograft transfer system (OATS)
. Ankle arthrodesis
. Total ankle arthroplasty
. Subtalar fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)


Explanation

For symptomatic osteochondral lesions of the talus smaller than 1.5 cm that fail nonoperative treatment, arthroscopic debridement and bone marrow stimulation (microfracture) is the primary surgical treatment to promote fibrocartilage healing.

Question 4207

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old athlete reports restricted knee flexion and persistent anterior knee instability in extension 8 months after an ACL reconstruction. Radiographs reveal an improperly placed femoral tunnel. Which of the following best describes the likely tunnel position and resulting biomechanics?

. Anteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in flexion and loose in extension
. Anteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in extension and loose in flexion
. Posteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in flexion and loose in extension
. Posteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in extension and loose in flexion
. Vertically placed femoral tunnel, restricted rotational stability but normal flexion and extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in flexion and loose in extension


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel causes the ACL graft to tighten significantly during knee flexion (restricting motion) and become lax in extension (causing instability). Conversely, posterior placement results in a graft that is tight in extension and loose in flexion.

Question 4208

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. He undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following structures primarily creates the dynamic "sling effect" that stabilizes the anterior shoulder postoperatively?

. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Long head of the biceps and pectoralis minor
. Pectoralis major and subscapularis
. Conjoint tendon and subscapularis
. Coracoacromial ligament and short head of biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a triple effect: the osseous block, the capsule-coracoacromial ligament repair, and the dynamic "sling effect" of the conjoint tendon passing through the split lower subscapularis muscle when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

Question 4209

Topic: Knee Sports

A 32-year-old male sustains a dashboard injury to his knee. On examination, the tibia rests posteriorly relative to the femoral condyles. A posterior drawer test reveals significantly increased posterior translation of the tibia at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following bundles of the affected ligament is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?

. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL
. Posteromedial bundle of the PCL
. Anteromedial bundle of the ACL
. Posterolateral bundle of the ACL
. Popliteofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL


Explanation

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) consists of two main bundles. The anterolateral bundle is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion, whereas the posteromedial bundle is tightest in full extension.

Question 4210

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 45-year-old recreational overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. An MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Six months of physical therapy and corticosteroid injections have failed to provide relief. Given the patient's age and pathology, what is the most reliable surgical intervention to provide pain relief while minimizing postoperative stiffness?

. Superior labral repair with suture anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy
. Coracoacromial ligament release
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior labral repair with suture anchors


Explanation

In patients over 40 years old with Type II SLAP tears, primary biceps tenodesis has been shown to yield more reliable pain relief, lower complication rates, and a lower risk of postoperative stiffness compared to SLAP repair.

Question 4211

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports



A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a prominent bump at the anterolateral head-neck junction. What radiographic measurement is most appropriate to quantify this deformity?

. Center-edge angle
. Alpha angle
. Tonnis angle
. Crossover sign
. Posterior wall sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Center-edge angle


Explanation

The patient has Cam-type FAI. The alpha angle on a lateral or Dunn view is the standard measurement to quantify the loss of femoral head-neck offset, with >50-55 degrees considered abnormal.

Question 4212

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old female presents with activity-related hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate a "crossover sign" on the AP pelvis view. This finding is indicative of which of the following?

. Coxa profunda
. Cam impingement
. Acetabular retroversion
. Anterior inferior iliac spine impingement
. Femoral retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coxa profunda


Explanation

The crossover sign occurs when the anterior wall of the acetabulum crosses the posterior wall on an AP radiograph. This indicates acetabular retroversion, a common cause of focal Pincer-type FAI.

Question 4213

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine



A 38-year-old male with Cam-type FAI is considering hip arthroscopy for osteochondroplasty and labral repair. Which of the following preoperative radiographic findings is the strongest predictor of a poor clinical outcome and early conversion to total hip arthroplasty?

. Alpha angle > 65 degrees
. Joint space width < 2 mm
. Presence of a crossover sign
. Center-edge angle of 35 degrees
. Prominent ischial spine sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 65 degrees


Explanation

Pre-existing osteoarthritis, defined radiographically as joint space width < 2 mm or Tonnis grade 2-3, is the strongest negative prognostic factor for hip arthroscopy in FAI, often leading to early conversion to THA.

Question 4214

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During physical examination of a patient suspected of having Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI), the examiner performs the FADIR test. Which of the following motions are combined during this provocative maneuver?

. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation
. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation
. Extension, Abduction, External Rotation
. Extension, Adduction, Internal Rotation
. Flexion, Adduction, External Rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation


Explanation

The anterior impingement test (FADIR) combines Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation. It is highly sensitive for detecting anterior labral tears and evaluating FAI.

Question 4215

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating an AP pelvis radiograph for femoroacetabular impingement, which of the following findings is most specific for focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (pincer impingement)?

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees
. Increased femoral neck-shaft angle
. Crossover sign
. Pistol grip deformity
. Coxa profunda

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees


Explanation

The crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph indicates cranial acetabular retroversion, leading to focal anterior overcoverage typical of pincer impingement. An alpha angle >55 degrees indicates cam impingement.

Question 4216

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During surgical dislocation of the hip for treatment of FAI and a labral tear, the trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. To preserve the blood supply to the femoral head, the osteotomy must stay superficial to which of the following structures?

. Piriformis fossa
. Lesser trochanter
. Quadratus femoris muscle
. Medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)
. Obturator externus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis fossa


Explanation

A trochanteric flip osteotomy leaves the external rotators intact to protect the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The osteotomy must be kept superficial to the quadratus femoris muscle to avoid injuring the ascending branch of the MFCA.

Question 4217

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male with symptomatic FAI and a labral tear undergoes hip arthroscopy with femoroplasty, acetabuloplasty, and labral repair. Which of the following preoperative factors is the strongest predictor of failure and eventual conversion to THA?

. Presence of a cam lesion with an alpha angle > 65 degrees
. Tönnis grade 2 or greater osteoarthritis
. Age greater than 30 years
. Pincer impingement with a crossover sign
. Male sex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a cam lesion with an alpha angle > 65 degrees


Explanation

Pre-existing osteoarthritis (Tönnis grade 2 or higher) or joint space narrowing (< 2 mm) is the strongest negative prognostic factor for joint preservation surgery in FAI. This frequently leads to early conversion to THA.

Question 4218

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient for suspected cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), measurement of the alpha angle is most accurately assessed using which of the following radiographic views?

. Standard Anteroposterior (AP) pelvis
. False profile view
. Dunn view (modified axial)
. Judet obturator oblique
. Inlet view of the pelvis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standard Anteroposterior (AP) pelvis


Explanation

The alpha angle is used to quantify the loss of femoral head sphericity seen in cam-type FAI. It is best evaluated on an axial or modified axial view of the proximal femur, such as the Dunn view or a cross-table lateral radiograph.

Question 4219

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a safe surgical dislocation of the hip (Ganz approach) for the treatment of femoroacetabular impingement, a trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. This technique is specifically designed to protect which critical vascular structure?

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Obturator artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The safe surgical dislocation of the hip utilizes a trochanteric flip osteotomy leaving the external rotators intact to the proximal femur. This protects the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), preventing avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 4220

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the pathophysiology of cam-type femoroacetabular impingement, the aspherical portion of the femoral head engages the acetabulum during hip flexion and internal rotation. Where does the resulting chondral delamination characteristically occur?

. Posteroinferior acetabulum
. Anterosuperior acetabulum
. Ligamentum teres
. Medial femoral head
. Central acetabular fossa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteroinferior acetabulum


Explanation

Cam impingement causes shear stress as the non-spherical femoral head enters the joint during flexion, leading to classic inside-out chondral delamination and labral tears primarily in the anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum.