This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4201
Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old girl dislocates her patella laterally. The primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation is ruptured. Where is the femoral footprint of this structure located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and distal to the medial epicondyle
Explanation
The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is the primary restraint to lateral patellar dislocation. Its femoral attachment (Schöttle's point) is located in the saddle between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.
Question 4202
Topic: Knee Sports
A 14-year-old boy presents with mechanical catching in his knee. Radiographs confirm Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD). What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (often remembered by the mnemonic LAME).
Question 4203
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 22-year-old elite soccer player sustains an acute fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. He desires to return to play as quickly as possible. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks
Explanation
A Jones fracture occurs in a vascular watershed area, predisposing it to nonunion. In elite athletes, early intramedullary screw fixation is the standard of care to expedite healing and return to play.
Question 4204
Topic: Knee Sports
During ACL reconstruction in a patient with a high-grade pivot shift, an anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction is considered. The ALL primarily acts to control which specific knee motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal tibial rotation
Explanation
The anterolateral ligament (ALL) functions as an important secondary stabilizer to the ACL. It specifically resists internal tibial rotation and helps eliminate the pivot shift phenomenon.
Question 4205
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player suffers from recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which surgical stabilization procedure is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
Explanation
In cases of recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft tissue repairs have unacceptably high failure rates. A bony augmentation such as the Latarjet procedure is required.
Question 4206
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 24-year-old presents with deep ankle pain after an inversion injury 6 months ago. MRI shows a 1.2 cm osteochondral lesion on the medial talar dome. After failing conservative management, what is the standard first-line surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
Explanation
For symptomatic osteochondral lesions of the talus smaller than 1.5 cm that fail nonoperative treatment, arthroscopic debridement and bone marrow stimulation (microfracture) is the primary surgical treatment to promote fibrocartilage healing.
Question 4207
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 25-year-old athlete reports restricted knee flexion and persistent anterior knee instability in extension 8 months after an ACL reconstruction. Radiographs reveal an improperly placed femoral tunnel. Which of the following best describes the likely tunnel position and resulting biomechanics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anteriorly placed femoral tunnel, graft tight in flexion and loose in extension
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel causes the ACL graft to tighten significantly during knee flexion (restricting motion) and become lax in extension (causing instability). Conversely, posterior placement results in a graft that is tight in extension and loose in flexion.
Question 4208
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. He undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following structures primarily creates the dynamic "sling effect" that stabilizes the anterior shoulder postoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a triple effect: the osseous block, the capsule-coracoacromial ligament repair, and the dynamic "sling effect" of the conjoint tendon passing through the split lower subscapularis muscle when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 4209
Topic: Knee Sports
A 32-year-old male sustains a dashboard injury to his knee. On examination, the tibia rests posteriorly relative to the femoral condyles. A posterior drawer test reveals significantly increased posterior translation of the tibia at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following bundles of the affected ligament is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL
Explanation
The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) consists of two main bundles. The anterolateral bundle is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion, whereas the posteromedial bundle is tightest in full extension.
Question 4210
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 45-year-old recreational overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. An MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Six months of physical therapy and corticosteroid injections have failed to provide relief. Given the patient's age and pathology, what is the most reliable surgical intervention to provide pain relief while minimizing postoperative stiffness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior labral repair with suture anchors
Explanation
In patients over 40 years old with Type II SLAP tears, primary biceps tenodesis has been shown to yield more reliable pain relief, lower complication rates, and a lower risk of postoperative stiffness compared to SLAP repair.
Question 4211
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a prominent bump at the anterolateral head-neck junction. What radiographic measurement is most appropriate to quantify this deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Center-edge angle
Explanation
The patient has Cam-type FAI. The alpha angle on a lateral or Dunn view is the standard measurement to quantify the loss of femoral head-neck offset, with >50-55 degrees considered abnormal.
Question 4212
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old female presents with activity-related hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate a "crossover sign" on the AP pelvis view. This finding is indicative of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coxa profunda
Explanation
The crossover sign occurs when the anterior wall of the acetabulum crosses the posterior wall on an AP radiograph. This indicates acetabular retroversion, a common cause of focal Pincer-type FAI.
Question 4213
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 38-year-old male with Cam-type FAI is considering hip arthroscopy for osteochondroplasty and labral repair. Which of the following preoperative radiographic findings is the strongest predictor of a poor clinical outcome and early conversion to total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alpha angle > 65 degrees
Explanation
Pre-existing osteoarthritis, defined radiographically as joint space width < 2 mm or Tonnis grade 2-3, is the strongest negative prognostic factor for hip arthroscopy in FAI, often leading to early conversion to THA.
Question 4214
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During physical examination of a patient suspected of having Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI), the examiner performs the FADIR test. Which of the following motions are combined during this provocative maneuver?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation
Explanation
The anterior impingement test (FADIR) combines Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation. It is highly sensitive for detecting anterior labral tears and evaluating FAI.
Question 4215
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When evaluating an AP pelvis radiograph for femoroacetabular impingement, which of the following findings is most specific for focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (pincer impingement)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alpha angle > 55 degrees
Explanation
The crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph indicates cranial acetabular retroversion, leading to focal anterior overcoverage typical of pincer impingement. An alpha angle >55 degrees indicates cam impingement.
Question 4216
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During surgical dislocation of the hip for treatment of FAI and a labral tear, the trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. To preserve the blood supply to the femoral head, the osteotomy must stay superficial to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis fossa
Explanation
A trochanteric flip osteotomy leaves the external rotators intact to protect the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The osteotomy must be kept superficial to the quadratus femoris muscle to avoid injuring the ascending branch of the MFCA.
Question 4217
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male with symptomatic FAI and a labral tear undergoes hip arthroscopy with femoroplasty, acetabuloplasty, and labral repair. Which of the following preoperative factors is the strongest predictor of failure and eventual conversion to THA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of a cam lesion with an alpha angle > 65 degrees
Explanation
Pre-existing osteoarthritis (Tönnis grade 2 or higher) or joint space narrowing (< 2 mm) is the strongest negative prognostic factor for joint preservation surgery in FAI. This frequently leads to early conversion to THA.
Question 4218
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When evaluating a patient for suspected cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), measurement of the alpha angle is most accurately assessed using which of the following radiographic views?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Standard Anteroposterior (AP) pelvis
Explanation
The alpha angle is used to quantify the loss of femoral head sphericity seen in cam-type FAI. It is best evaluated on an axial or modified axial view of the proximal femur, such as the Dunn view or a cross-table lateral radiograph.
Question 4219
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a safe surgical dislocation of the hip (Ganz approach) for the treatment of femoroacetabular impingement, a trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. This technique is specifically designed to protect which critical vascular structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The safe surgical dislocation of the hip utilizes a trochanteric flip osteotomy leaving the external rotators intact to the proximal femur. This protects the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), preventing avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Question 4220
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the pathophysiology of cam-type femoroacetabular impingement, the aspherical portion of the femoral head engages the acetabulum during hip flexion and internal rotation. Where does the resulting chondral delamination characteristically occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posteroinferior acetabulum
Explanation
Cam impingement causes shear stress as the non-spherical femoral head enters the joint during flexion, leading to classic inside-out chondral delamination and labral tears primarily in the anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum.
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