5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. She is scheduled for a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. To ensure proper graft isometry, the femoral tunnel must be placed at Schöttle's point. Where is this anatomic location relative to the osseous landmarks?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player is diagnosed with an isolated Type II SLAP tear that has failed 6 months of conservative management. Which surgical intervention has been shown to yield the highest rates of return to sport and patient satisfaction in patients of this age?

A 48-year-old female feels a "pop" in her posterior knee while squatting to garden. An MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the medial meniscus posterior root. Biomechanically, this injury is equivalent to which of the following?

A 26-year-old runner presents with chronic, deep ankle pain. MRI reveals a 1.8 square centimeter osteochondral lesion (OCL) on the medial talar dome without subchondral cysts. He has failed 6 months of conservative care. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

An 11-year-old male with wide-open physes sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He is highly active and wishes to return to pivoting sports. To minimize the risk of growth arrest, which of the following surgical techniques is recommended?

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve. At what anatomic location is this cyst most likely situated?

A 14-year-old male complains of vague, activity-related knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion.

What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

A 16-year-old female soccer player sustains a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and is scheduled for reconstruction. What is the most significant disadvantage of utilizing a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) allograft compared to an autograft in this patient demographic?

A 25-year-old football player complains of knee instability after a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation compared to the contralateral side at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain strictly during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 20-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the most likely pathomechanism of his pain?

A 30-year-old marathon runner presents with persistent deep ankle pain. MRI reveals a 1.8 square cm osteochondral lesion on the medial talar dome. Non-operative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment algorithm for this specific defect size?

An 18-year-old female has recurrent lateral patellar instability. Advanced imaging demonstrates a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm and a normal Caton-Deschamps ratio. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

A 21-year-old rugby player suffers from recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative 3D CT scan demonstrates 28 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 45-year-old female experiences a painful pop in the posterior aspect of her knee while squatting to garden. MRI shows a radial tear adjacent to the posterior horn medial meniscus attachment. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of leaving this specific tear untreated?

During diagnostic arthroscopy of a 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher, a Type II SLAP tear is identified. The dynamic peel-back mechanism is clearly demonstrated on the monitor. In what arm position is this specific pathomechanism most pronounced?

A 14-year-old male presents with vague, aching knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the classic and most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

A 26-year-old skier presents with a significantly swollen knee after a twisting fall. An anteroposterior radiograph reveals a small elliptical bone avulsion fragment from the proximal lateral tibia, known as a Segond fracture. What is the most commonly associated intra-articular injury?

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. The 'peel-back' mechanism during late cocking is suspected. Which physical examination test is most classically associated with diagnosing the resulting pathology?

A 22-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of posterior shoulder pain when spiking the ball. Examination reveals a positive apprehension test and a relocation test that relieves her posterior shoulder pain. She demonstrates GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 26-year-old male presents with a posterior sag sign after a dashboard injury. Which of the following physical examination findings most suggests a combined Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) and Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury?