5. Sports Medicine MCQs

During hip arthroscopy for femoroacetabular impingement, a classic Cam lesion is identified. Where is the most common location of the associated chondral injury?

Which of the following radiographic findings on an AP pelvis is most characteristic of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement caused by acetabular retroversion?

A 24-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with insidious onset of deep groin pain, exacerbated by deep squatting and prolonged sitting. Radiographs demonstrate a prominent osseous bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers is most likely to be positive in this patient?

An anteroposterior (AP) pelvis radiograph is performed to evaluate a 30-year-old female with chronic groin pain. The radiograph demonstrates a "crossover sign" and an "ischial spine sign". Which of the following underlying pathomorphologies is most strongly associated with these radiographic findings?

A 22-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by prolonged sitting and pivoting. Examination reveals pain with hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR). Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely primary pathology?

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'crossover sign' and prominent ischial spine.

These radiographic findings are most characteristic of which of the following conditions?

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is primarily a disorder of the proximal femur that leads to progressive chondrolabral damage. It is most commonly characterized by which of the following radiographic findings?

A 28-year-old male athlete presents with chronic anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. A Dunn lateral radiograph of the hip demonstrates an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary underlying pathomorphology?

A patient presents with a hyperextension-varus injury to the knee, resulting in a small anteromedial tibial plateau fracture and an avulsion fracture of the fibular head. Which concomitant ligamentous injury must be highly suspected?

A 65-year-old woman presents with an anterior shoulder dislocation and an associated greater tuberosity fracture. Following closed reduction, radiographs reveal that the greater tuberosity fragment is displaced superiorly by 8 mm. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old athlete sustains a high-energy traumatic knee dislocation that is spontaneously reduced in the emergency department. His ankle-brachial index (ABI) is measured at 0.8. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a seizure with his left arm locked in internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. A subsequent CT scan demonstrates an anteromedial humeral head impression defect involving 45% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 30-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after a high-velocity knee injury. Examination reveals a severe posterolateral dislocation with a prominent transverse groove or 'dimple sign' at the medial joint line. Attempted closed reduction is unsuccessful. What is the most likely anatomic reason for the irreducibility?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes preoperative imaging, which reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability and prevent recurrence?

A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals a 30 percent anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures provides the lowest rate of recurrent instability for this patient?

A 22-year-old professional rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to restore stability?

A 45-year-old man sustains a Schatzker II tibial plateau fracture.

Which associated intra-articular injury is most commonly encountered during surgical fixation?

In the evaluation of a thoracolumbar fracture, identifying posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) injury is critical for surgical decision making. Which of the following MRI sequences and findings is most sensitive for indicating a disrupted PLC?

A 22-year-old college basketball player who was hit from behind while going up for a rebound is rendered immediately quadraparetic for approximately 10 minutes, followed by complete resolution of motor loss and return of full sensation. The radiograph and MRI scan of the cervical spine shown in Figures 2a and 2b reveal a canal diameter of 13 mm, loss of cerebrospinal fluid space about the spinal cord, and no signal change within the cord. What is the best course of action?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a hyperextension injury to his first MTP joint. MRI confirms a complete tear of the plantar plate with 4 mm of proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate treatment?