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Question 4121

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 26-year-old overhead pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and decreased velocity. Physical examination reveals a positive O'Brien test and pain with resisted supination. An MR arthrogram demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear. If nonoperative management fails, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. SLAP repair with anchors posterior to the biceps root
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy
. Anterior capsulolabral repair
. Coracoacromial ligament release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SLAP repair with anchors posterior to the biceps root


Explanation

In overhead athletes or adults with symptomatic Type II SLAP tears failing conservative management, biceps tenodesis has shown more reliable return to sport and pain relief compared to SLAP repair, which often leads to stiffness.

Question 4122

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan

reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Open capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In the setting of critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) in a contact athlete, a coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is the gold standard. Arthroscopic soft tissue stabilization has an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario.

Question 4123

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old man sustains a severe varus and hyperextension injury to his knee. Examination shows a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 90 degrees. What is the primary injured structure?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Both PLC and PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation (positive dial test) at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees. If the dial test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.

Question 4124

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with an inability to actively internally rotate his arm. Physical examination reveals a positive belly-press test and increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the subscapularis. During repair, which anatomic landmark reliably helps locate the retracted tendon?

. Biceps tendon
. Conjoint tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Lesser tuberosity
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tendon


Explanation

The long head of the biceps tendon is a critical landmark; the subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity just medial to the bicipital groove. A subscapularis tear frequently leads to medial subluxation of the biceps tendon.

Question 4125

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old girl experiences recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Imaging shows a normal Tibial Tubercle-Trochlear Groove (TT-TG) distance and normal patellar height. She is scheduled for medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. The anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL is located:

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle and posterior to the adductor tubercle
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The Schöttle point, indicating the anatomical femoral origin of the MPFL, is located proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, and distal to the adductor tubercle. Non-anatomic placement leads to altered patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 4126

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with an intact subscapularis, severe pseudoparalysis, and Hamada Grade 2 changes. Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is considered. Which structure provides the biomechanical basis for this procedure by keeping the humeral head reduced?

. Coracoacromial ligament
. Biceps tendon
. Superior capsule
. Deltoid fascia
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

The superior capsule is a critical static stabilizer of the glenohumeral joint. SCR utilizes a graft to replace the deficient superior capsule, preventing superior migration of the humeral head and restoring the fulcrum for the deltoid.

Question 4127

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female swimmer complains of bilateral shoulder pain and sensations of instability. Physical examination demonstrates generalized ligamentous laxity, positive sulcus sign, and apprehension in multiple planes. After 6 months of dedicated physical therapy, her symptoms persist. What is the surgical procedure of choice?

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Open anterior capsular shift and Latarjet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) failing conservative therapy is treated with an inferior capsular shift or arthroscopic capsular plication. Thermal capsulorrhaphy is obsolete due to high failure rates and chondrolysis.

Question 4128

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 23-year-old minor league baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) and posterosuperior labral fraying. This pathology is primarily driven by:

. Anterior capsular contracture
. Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)
. Acromial spurring
. Biceps anchor instability
. Scapular winging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior capsular contracture


Explanation

Internal impingement in throwers is caused by repetitive abutment of the posterosuperior cuff against the posterior labrum during extreme abduction and external rotation. It is strongly associated with GIRD and a tight posterior capsule.

Question 4129

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old boy presents with vague right knee pain and catching. Radiographs

reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, commonly remembered by the mnemonic LAME (Lateral Aspect Medial Epicondyle/Condyle).

Question 4130

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals 30% anterior glenoid bone loss.

The most appropriate definitive surgical management is:

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Arthroscopic capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for anterior shoulder instability associated with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). Soft tissue stabilization alone, such as a Bankart repair, carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 4131

Topic: Knee Sports

An 18-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact valgus and twisting injury to her knee, resulting in an ACL tear. During anatomic single-bundle ACL reconstruction, the surgeon specifically evaluates the femoral footprint. The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament is under its greatest tension in which of the following positions?

. Full extension
. 30 degrees of flexion
. 60 degrees of flexion
. 90 degrees of flexion
. 120 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full extension


Explanation

The ACL has two main bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL). The PL bundle is tightest in full extension and primarily controls rotatory stability, whereas the AM bundle is tightest in flexion and controls anterior translation.

Question 4132

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 45-year-old recreational overhead athlete is diagnosed with an isolated Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. When comparing arthroscopic SLAP repair to primary biceps tenodesis in this age demographic, evidence shows that SLAP repair is associated with:

. Lower rate of return to sport
. Higher rate of postoperative stiffness
. Higher objective strength scores
. Lower rate of bicipital groove pain
. No difference in clinical outcomes or complications

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower rate of return to sport


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years, SLAP repair is associated with higher rates of postoperative stiffness, dissatisfaction, and reoperation compared to primary biceps tenodesis. Therefore, tenodesis is often preferred for Type II SLAP tears in this population.

Question 4133

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia. Physical examination reveals increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral knee. This isolated physical examination finding strongly indicates injury to the:

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees of flexion is pathognomonic for an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates combined PLC and PCL injuries.

Question 4134

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with a loss of throwing velocity and vague late-cocking phase shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the non-throwing shoulder. The primary pathophysiologic cause of this glenohumeral internal rotation deficit is:

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
. Anterosuperior capsule laxity
. Rotator interval contracture
. Coracohumeral ligament tightness
. Pectoralis minor tightness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is primarily driven by repetitive microtrauma leading to contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. It is a key contributor to internal impingement and superior labral pathology.

Question 4135

Topic: Knee Sports

A 55-year-old woman experiences a sudden popping sensation in the back of her knee while squatting to garden. An MRI reveals a medial meniscus posterior root tear. Biomechanically, this isolated injury is equivalent to which of the following?

. Total meniscectomy
. Partial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Posterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Normal knee kinematics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion under axial load. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a root tear results in contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, predisposing the joint to rapid chondrolysis.

Question 4136

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old athlete undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. At his 3-month postoperative visit, he lacks 15 degrees of full extension. A lateral radiograph demonstrates that the tibial tunnel is placed anterior to the intersection of Blumensaat's line and the tibial plateau. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this tunnel malposition?

. Intercondylar roof impingement
. PCL impingement
. Premature graft rupture during deep flexion
. Lateral meniscal root avulsion
. Posterior knee instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intercondylar roof impingement


Explanation

Anterior placement of the tibial tunnel causes the ACL graft to impinge against the intercondylar roof during knee extension. This roof impingement leads to an extension deficit, anterior knee pain, and potential attrition or failure of the graft.

Question 4137

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders 'slipping' during routines. Physical exam reveals a positive sulcus sign, positive apprehension tests with spontaneous relocation, and generalized ligamentous laxity. First-line management should focus on a rehabilitation program emphasizing strengthening of which of the following muscle groups?

. Pectoralis major and minor
. Rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizers
. Deltoid and biceps brachii
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major
. Coracobrachialis and short head of biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major and minor


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is characterized by symptomatic generalized capsular laxity. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged physical therapy program focusing on the dynamic stabilizers, specifically the rotator cuff and periscapular muscles.

Question 4138

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent shoulder pain and mechanical catching. Nonoperative management has failed, and arthroscopy reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. The surgeon elects to perform a primary biceps tenodesis rather than a SLAP repair. What is the primary advantage of biceps tenodesis over SLAP repair in this specific demographic?

. Lower risk of postoperative stiffness and more predictable pain relief
. Improved overhead throwing velocity
. Prevention of early glenohumeral osteoarthritis
. Faster restoration of external rotation in abduction
. Zero risk of hardware-related complications

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower risk of postoperative stiffness and more predictable pain relief


Explanation

In patients over age 40, primary SLAP repair is associated with a high rate of postoperative stiffness and residual pain. Biceps tenodesis provides more predictable pain relief, higher satisfaction, and a significantly lower risk of stiffness in this population.

Question 4139

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a positive posterior sag sign. A Dial test is performed, demonstrating a 15-degree increase in external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral leg at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. These findings indicate an isolated injury to which structure?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Popliteus tendon only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An increase in external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion that reduces to normal at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 4140

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female experiences an acute lateral patellar dislocation while dancing. She is evaluated in the emergency department and reduced. Which of the following describes the most common anatomic location of injury to the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) in this setting?

. Midsubstance
. Tibial insertion
. Femoral origin
. Patellar insertion
. Vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Midsubstance


Explanation

In acute lateral patellar dislocations, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) most commonly fails at its femoral origin. The femoral origin is located between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.