5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Compared to a quadruple-stranded hamstring autograft, what is the most likely long-term complication associated with this graft choice?

A 25-year-old man presents with knee pain after a twisting injury. Physical examination reveals an asymmetric increased external rotation of the tibia of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but no difference compared to the contralateral knee at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 20-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 45-year-old male manual laborer complains of deep shoulder pain and mechanical clicking. MRI demonstrates a Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment in this patient demographic?

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shoulder pain after a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in adduction and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 20% of the articular surface. What is this defect termed?

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon evaluates the anatomy of the native ACL footprint. Which of the following statements correctly describes the biomechanics of the two main bundles of the ACL?

A 28-year-old dashboard-injury victim presents with a positive posterior drawer test and a posterior sag sign. MRI confirms an isolated Grade II posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 35-year-old man presents with a locked shoulder after a generalized seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anterior humeral head defect involving 25% of the articular surface as shown in Figure 1.

What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old football player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Six months postoperatively, he complains of anterior knee pain and a persistent 10-degree extension lag. A sagittal MRI reveals graft impingement against the intercondylar notch roof. Which of the following technical errors most likely caused this complication?

An 8-year-old girl (Tanner stage 1) sustains a midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. She experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical technique to minimize the risk of physeal growth arrest?

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Which of the following is the most common complication uniquely associated with this specific graft choice compared to hamstring autograft?

A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders "slipping" out of joint. Examination reveals positive sulcus signs bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 7/9). Initial management should consist of:

A 26-year-old rugby player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed at 90 degrees. Examination demonstrates a posterior sag sign and 8 mm of posterior translation of the tibia on the femur at 90 degrees of flexion, but normal translation at 30 degrees. The dial test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 24-year-old throwing athlete undergoes an arthroscopic Type II SLAP repair. What is the most common postoperative complication that prevents a return to the previous level of overhead competition?

A 31-year-old soccer player sustains a hyperextension and varus injury to his knee. On examination, he has 15 degrees of increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. This asymmetry completely resolves when tested at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old football player sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation.

Advanced imaging demonstrates an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and anterior glenoid bone loss of 28%. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrence?

A 40-year-old recreational skier presents with medial knee pain after catching an inside edge. Examination reveals 4 mm of medial opening to valgus stress at 30 degrees of flexion with a firm endpoint, but no opening at 0 degrees. MRI confirms a partial tear of the superficial MCL at its femoral attachment. What is the recommended treatment?

A 48-year-old ski instructor dislocates his nondominant shoulder in a fall. Management consisting of application of a sling for 1 week results in improvement in his pain. Follow-up examination 6 weeks after the injury reveals that the patient continues to have difficulty with shoulder elevation. Management should now include

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is planned. When evaluating graft placement, a femoral tunnel positioned too anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch will result in a graft that is biomechanically:

A 22-year-old collegiate football player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During the procedure, the femoral tunnel is drilled too anteriorly. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur?