5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 16-year-old elite female soccer player sustains an acute ACL tear. She is considering graft options for reconstruction. Compared to hamstring autograft, bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft has been consistently associated with which of the following outcomes?

A 25-year-old rugby player presents with a twisting knee injury. On examination, the dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral normal knee at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Preoperative CT imaging reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon uses fluoroscopy to identify the femoral attachment site. According to Schöttle's method, where is the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL located?

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Postoperatively, he demonstrates an absent Lachman test but a persistently positive pivot shift test. What is the most likely technical error made during the procedure?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 28-year-old man sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is equal bilaterally. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a non-contact pivoting knee injury. MRI confirms an isolated ACL tear. He elects for reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During the procedure, the femoral tunnel is drilled too anteriorly. Which complication is most likely postoperatively?

A 28-year-old skier sustains an acute knee injury and presents with a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, which normalizes to the contralateral side at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with anterior shoulder pain. He describes a "dead arm" sensation when throwing. Physical exam reveals a positive O'Brien's active compression test. Which of the following MRI arthrogram findings is most consistent with a Type II SLAP tear?

A 20-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After closed reduction, CT scan demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 16-year-old female experiences recurrent patellar dislocations. Physical exam reveals apprehension with lateral patellar translation. What is the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation at 20 degrees of knee flexion?

Which bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation when the knee is in 90 degrees of flexion?

A 24-year-old gymnast presents with a painful shoulder. Examination demonstrates generalized ligamentous laxity, positive sulcus sign, and apprehension with anterior and posterior translation. She has failed 6 months of physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for her multidirectional instability?

During an ACL reconstruction using a hamstring autograft, the surgeon uses a suspensory fixation device on the femur and an interference screw on the tibia. What is the most common mechanism of graft failure in the first 3 months postoperatively?

A 19-year-old football player sustains a valgus blow to his knee. Exam reveals a grade III MCL injury and an ACL tear. What is the recommended treatment strategy?

A 30-year-old baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, while external rotation is increased. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient presents with a chronic posterolateral corner (PLC) deficient knee resulting in a varus thrust during gait. Radiographs show mechanical axis falling medial to the knee center and no advanced osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

A 21-year-old athlete undergoes revision ACL reconstruction. Preoperative CT scan shows an expanded tibial tunnel measuring 16 mm in diameter. What is the preferred surgical strategy in this setting?