5. Sports Medicine MCQs

When evaluating the vascular supply of the menisci for potential repair, the peripheral blood supply predominantly arises from which of the following arteries?

A 12-year-old boy (Tanner stage II) sustains a midsubstance ACL rupture. He has significant growth remaining. Which of the following surgical techniques is most appropriate to minimize the risk of growth arrest or angular deformity?

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) consists of two main functional bundles. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical behavior of the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles during knee range of motion?

A 32-year-old male presents for evaluation of a failed ACL reconstruction. Imaging reveals widening of the femoral and tibial bone tunnels, measuring 16 mm and 15 mm, respectively. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

An AP radiograph of a 22-year-old skier's acutely injured knee demonstrates an elliptic bony avulsion fragment just distal to the lateral tibial plateau. This finding is highly pathognomonic for an injury to which structure, and what associated major ligamentous tear is likely present?

During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon uses fluoroscopy to identify the femoral attachment point (Schöttle's point). This radiographic landmark is located:

A surgeon is performing a PCL reconstruction and chooses an open tibial inlay technique over a transtibial tunnel technique. The primary biomechanical advantage of the tibial inlay technique is:

A 35-year-old runner presents with a palpable, firm mass on the lateral joint line of the knee. The mass fluctuates in size and is tender to palpation. MRI confirms a lateral parameniscal cyst. The most appropriate definitive surgical management involves:

A 4-strand hamstring autograft used in anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction has which of the following biomechanical characteristics compared to the native ACL?

A 24-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Examination shows a positive dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

Six months following an uncomplicated bone-patellar tendon-bone ACL reconstruction, a patient complains of a painful "clunk" and an inability to achieve terminal knee extension. MRI shows a nodular mass anterior to the ACL graft. What surgical error is the most common cause of this complication?

A 9-year-old boy (Tanner stage I) with widely open physes sustains a mid-substance ACL tear. His parents wish to proceed with surgical management due to recurrent instability episodes. Which surgical technique is most appropriate?

During an ACL reconstruction, a systematic arthroscopic evaluation is performed. Viewing from the anterolateral portal through the intercondylar notch reveals a tear at the meniscocapsular junction of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. What is this specific lesion called?

To address residual anterolateral rotatory instability during an ACL reconstruction, an anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction is planned. Which of the following describes the correct anatomic origin and insertion of the ALL?

A 21-year-old athlete complains of the knee "giving way" 1 year after an ACL reconstruction, despite having no new trauma. On physical exam, the Lachman test is negative, but the pivot-shift test is markedly positive. Radiographs reveal the femoral tunnel is positioned at the 12 o'clock position in the coronal plane. What is the primary cause of this clinical presentation?

When comparing the tibial inlay technique to the transtibial tunnel technique for posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the tibial inlay technique specifically avoids which of the following biomechanical issues?

A 24-year-old athlete reports persistent loss of terminal knee extension 6 months following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Radiographs demonstrate that the tibial tunnel is positioned anterior to the Blumensaat line with the knee in full extension. What is the most likely cause of his restricted motion?

A 48-year-old woman experiences a sudden "pop" in the posterior aspect of her knee while squatting. MRI reveals a posterior medial meniscal root tear with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical consequence of this injury if left untreated?

A 26-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. On examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the side-to-side difference in external rotation is less than 5 degrees. Which of the following injuries is most likely present?

A 25-year-old rugby player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Examination reveals increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is the primary deficient restraint responsible for this examination finding?