5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 27-year-old male presents with chronic knee instability. Physical examination demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This Dial test finding indicates an isolated injury to which structure?

During arthroscopy on a 20-year-old patient, a longitudinal tear of the medial meniscus is identified. The healing potential of a meniscal repair depends heavily on vascular supply. In an adult, what portion of the medial meniscus is considered well-vascularized (the red-red zone)?

A patient complains of a severe loss of terminal knee extension 4 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. A lateral radiograph in full extension shows the entire tibial tunnel is placed anterior to the Blumensaat line. This non-anatomic placement is most likely to result in:

Surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee aims to restore its three primary static stabilizers. These structures include the lateral collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the:

A 9-year-old boy (Tanner stage 1) sustains a mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear and experiences recurrent instability. To minimize the risk of iatrogenic growth arrest, which surgical management is most appropriate?

Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a hamstring autograft, the graft undergoes a biological process known as ligamentization. During this process, the graft is mechanically at its weakest during which postoperative timeframe?

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) consists of two functional bundles. What is the tensioning pattern of these bundles throughout the knee's range of motion?

Proponents of double-bundle anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction argue that it more accurately restores native knee kinematics compared to single-bundle reconstruction. Specifically, biomechanical studies suggest double-bundle reconstruction provides superior control of:

Female athletes demonstrate a significantly higher incidence of noncontact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries compared to males. Which of the following is an established intrinsic risk factor for ACL tears in the female athletic population?

A 12-year-old female soccer player with wide-open physes sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture. She experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. When planning surgical reconstruction, which of the following techniques minimizes the risk of growth arrest and angular deformity?

A 24-year-old professional football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed, resulting in a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury. Which bundle of the PCL is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?

A 30-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to his knee. On physical examination, the dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric to the normal knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old athlete presents with a locked knee after a deep squat. MRI reveals a "double PCL sign" on the sagittal T2-weighted sequence.

What is the most appropriate management for this pathology?

When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts and hamstring autografts for primary ACL reconstruction, patients receiving a BPTB autograft have a statistically higher risk of which of the following postoperative complications?

An 18-year-old high school hockey player sustains an acute, isolated Grade III medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear during a game. Physical examination reveals gapping in 30 degrees of flexion with a firm endpoint in full extension. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 22-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia while his knee is flexed. Exam shows a posterior sag sign and +2 posterior drawer at 90 degrees of flexion, but no varus/valgus instability. Dial test is symmetric at 30 and 90 degrees. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a complete radial tear of the medial meniscus posterior root results in contact pressures most similar to which of the following conditions?

A 28-year-old woman is 6 months status post anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. She complains of anterior knee pain and a painful clunk at terminal extension. She lacks 10 degrees of full extension compared to the contralateral knee. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

During clinical examination of a knee with a suspected multiligamentous injury, the dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion. At 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric to the normal side. This physical examination finding is most consistent with: