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Question 4141

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Electromyography (EMG) shows denervation changes specifically isolated to the infraspinatus. Traction neuropathy of which nerve is most likely responsible for this finding?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

Massive retracted tears of the posterosuperior rotator cuff alter the pull of the remaining muscles, potentially causing traction on the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. This classically results in denervation and isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus.

Question 4142

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 65-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation after a fall down stairs. Following successful closed reduction in the emergency department, he continues to have profound weakness in external rotation and elevation. Sensation over the lateral deltoid is completely intact. What is the most likely concomitant injury?

. Axillary nerve palsy
. Massive rotator cuff tear
. Greater tuberosity fracture
. Anterior labral periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)
. Long head of the biceps tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve palsy


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years, anterior shoulder dislocations are highly associated with concomitant rotator cuff tears rather than isolated labral pathology. Persistent weakness after reduction with an intact axillary nerve strongly suggests a massive cuff tear.

Question 4143

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft to quadrupled hamstring autograft for primary ACL reconstruction, the BPTB graft is most consistently associated with an increased incidence of which of the following postoperative findings?

. Graft rupture at 5 years
. Anterior knee pain and donor-site morbidity
. Loss of hamstring strength during deep knee flexion
. Deep surgical site infection
. Persistent pivot shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Graft rupture at 5 years


Explanation

While both grafts yield excellent stability, BPTB autografts are historically and consistently associated with a higher incidence of donor-site morbidity, specifically anterior knee pain and discomfort while kneeling, compared to hamstring autografts.

Question 4144

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 14-year-old male athlete presents with insidious onset of knee pain and intermittent mechanical catching. Radiographs demonstrate a focal subchondral radiolucency consistent with osteochondritis dissecans (OCD). What is the most common anatomical location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central weight-bearing zone of the medial tibial plateau
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Central trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most frequent location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, accounting for approximately 70-80% of all knee OCD lesions.

Question 4145

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old elite javelin thrower complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopy is performed for suspected internal impingement. Which of the following combined pathological findings is the hallmark of internal impingement of the shoulder?

. Anterior Bankart lesion and Hill-Sachs defect
. Bursal-sided rotator cuff tear and subacromial spurring
. Articular-sided posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and posterosuperior labral (SLAP) tear
. Subscapularis tear and biceps subluxation
. Posterior labral tear and reverse Hill-Sachs defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart lesion and Hill-Sachs defect


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs when the greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid during maximum abduction and external rotation. This pinches the rotator cuff, leading to articular-sided, posterosuperior cuff fraying or tearing, along with associated posterosuperior labral (SLAP) pathology.

Question 4146

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 55-year-old male with end-stage renal disease falls and presents with sudden swelling and an inability to actively extend his knee. A lateral radiograph demonstrates patella baja. Based on this radiographic finding, which of the following injuries is most likely?

. Quadriceps tendon rupture
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Tibial tubercle avulsion fracture
. Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
. Bipartite patella fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadriceps tendon rupture


Explanation

Patella baja (a low-riding patella) is indicative of a quadriceps tendon rupture, as the unopposed pull of the intact patellar tendon draws the patella distally. Conversely, a patellar tendon rupture typically results in patella alta.

Question 4147

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomic reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, careful dissection is required to protect the common peroneal nerve. To avoid iatrogenic injury, the surgeon must consistently identify the nerve in relation to which primary anatomic landmark?

. Posterior to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius
. Deep to the popliteus muscle belly
. Posterior to the biceps femoris tendon at the fibular head
. Anterior to the fibular collateral ligament
. Within the deep substance of the iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve courses posterior to the biceps femoris tendon before wrapping around the fibular neck. Identification and protection of the nerve in this specific location are critical initial steps in posterolateral corner reconstruction.

Question 4148

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old athlete presents 6 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, complaining of anterior knee pain and a 10-degree extension deficit. Radiographs demonstrate the tibial tunnel is positioned entirely anterior to the Blumensaat line with the knee in full extension. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of his extension deficit?

. Graft rupture
. Intercondylar roof impingement
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) impingement
. Arthrofibrosis secondary to subclinical infection
. Patellar tendon contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Graft rupture


Explanation

The tibial tunnel in an ACL reconstruction should be positioned posterior to the Blumensaat line when the knee is in full extension. Anterior placement causes the graft to impinge against the intercondylar roof, leading to an extension deficit and potential graft failure.

Question 4149

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure is indicated for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). Soft tissue stabilization alone in this setting carries an unacceptably high recurrence rate.

Question 4150

Topic: Knee Sports

A football running back sustains a blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Physical examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. A posterior sag sign is also present. Which structures are most likely injured?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and popliteus only
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) and posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and popliteus only


Explanation

Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion during the dial test indicates a combined injury to the PCL and the PLC. Isolated PLC injuries typically demonstrate increased external rotation at 30 degrees only.

Question 4151

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In patients with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons, traction neuropathy of the suprascapular nerve is most likely to occur at which of the following anatomic locations?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Massive, retracted tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus alter the normal medial-lateral excursion of the suprascapular nerve. The tethering effect most commonly causes traction neuropathy at the suprascapular notch due to the fixed transverse scapular ligament.

Question 4152

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An elite baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination demonstrates a positive O'Brien test and pain with the "peel-back" mechanism in the late cocking phase. Which of the following describes a Type II SLAP lesion?

. Fraying of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor
. Detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid
. Bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor
. Bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum extending into the biceps tendon
. Anterior labral periosteal sleeve avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fraying of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor


Explanation

A Type II SLAP lesion involves the detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps from the glenoid. It is commonly driven by a peel-back mechanism in overhead throwing athletes.

Question 4153

Topic: Knee Sports

Following a first-time lateral patellar dislocation in a 16-year-old female, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is identified on MRI as the primary torn restraint. If surgical reconstruction is planned, where is the normal anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL (Schottle's point) located?

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle and anterior to the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located in a saddle-shaped region between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. Non-anatomic reconstruction can lead to abnormal graft tension, stiffness, and altered patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 4154

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male soccer player presents with vague anterior knee pain and mechanical catching. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion of the knee?

. Central weight-bearing lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Trochlear groove
. Patellar articular surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central weight-bearing lateral femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This area is vulnerable to repetitive microtrauma, particularly in the setting of tibial spine impingement.

Question 4155

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female collegiate soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. When comparing this graft choice to a hamstring autograft, what is the most common long-term complication she may face?

. Increased graft rupture rate
. Anterior knee pain
. Deep surgical site infection
. Hamstring weakness
. Arthrofibrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased graft rupture rate


Explanation

BPTB autografts are historically associated with a higher incidence of donor-site morbidity, particularly anterior knee pain and kneeling pain, compared to hamstring autografts. Graft rupture rates are comparable or slightly lower for BPTB grafts.

Question 4156

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain.

MRI demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. Which of the following is the most definitive and reliable surgical treatment for this patient?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using suture anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Diagnostic arthroscopy with labral debridement only
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using suture anchors


Explanation

In patients over 35-40 years old, biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and higher functional satisfaction than SLAP repair. SLAP repairs in older patients are associated with higher rates of postoperative stiffness and failure.

Question 4157

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male presents with knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. Physical examination demonstrates an abnormal dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, external rotation is symmetrical bilaterally. Which structure(s) is/are injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only
. Posterolateral corner (PLC) only
. Combined PLC and PCL
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and PLC
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) and PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury presents with increased external rotation on the dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 4158

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate football player sustains a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation.

What is the single most important risk factor for recurrent instability in this patient if treated nonoperatively?

. Size of the Hill-Sachs defect
. Patient age at the time of injury
. Arm dominance
. Player position
. Size of the Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size of the Hill-Sachs defect


Explanation

Patient age at the time of the initial dislocation is the most significant predictor of recurrence. Patients under 20 years old have recurrence rates approaching 80-90% with conservative management.

Question 4159

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female feels a "pop" in the posterior aspect of her knee while deep squatting. MRI confirms a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. Left untreated, this injury biomechanically alters the knee in a manner most similar to which of the following?

. Total medial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Peripheral longitudinal meniscal tear
. Focal Grade II chondral defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A meniscal root tear completely disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, rapidly accelerating osteoarthritis.

Question 4160

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male volleyball player reports vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness with external rotation.

MRI demonstrates a large paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is primarily affected by this lesion?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The spinoglenoid notch transmits the suprascapular nerve after it has already supplied motor branches to the supraspinatus. Compression at this specific location causes isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus.