This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3981
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of looseness. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign that does not reduce with external rotation. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
Explanation
The initial management for multidirectional instability (MDI) is a prolonged trial (at least 6 months) of physical therapy focusing on strengthening the dynamic stabilizers. Surgical stabilization is reserved for cases strictly refractory to conservative care.
Question 3982
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 38-year-old elite volleyball player has isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which anatomic location is the nerve most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (often by a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior SLAP tear) results in isolated infraspinatus weakness. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 3983
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following represents the primary biomechanical goal of a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) using a dermal allograft for a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reversing glenoid retroversion
Explanation
Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) utilizes a graft to replace the deficient superior capsule. Its primary biomechanical function is to serve as a static restraint, preventing superior migration of the humeral head and restoring the glenohumeral fulcrum.
Question 3984
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% bone loss of the anterior-inferior glenoid width. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
Explanation
Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in the setting of recurrent instability is an indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) addresses the bone defect and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon.
Question 3985
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation, and he has severe pain with attempted external rotation. Standard AP radiographs appear surprisingly normal. Which of the following represents the most likely pathognomonic lesion on advanced imaging or axillary radiograph?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hill-Sachs lesion
Explanation
Seizures or electrical shocks classically cause posterior shoulder dislocations, which lock the arm in internal rotation. The characteristic impaction fracture on the anteromedial humeral head is a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.
Question 3986
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Active forward flexion and abduction are symmetric to the contralateral side. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the nerve compression most likely occurring?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus (abduction) and infraspinatus (external rotation).
Question 3987
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Which of the following muscle pairings constitutes the primary transverse plane force couple responsible for maintaining the humeral head centered on the glenoid during active shoulder motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid and Supraspinatus
Explanation
The transverse force couple is composed of the subscapularis anteriorly and the infraspinatus/teres minor posteriorly. This balance is critical for glenohumeral stability and allows active elevation even in the presence of a supraspinatus tear.
Question 3988
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
An 18-year-old male pitcher complains of right shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Examination shows a positive O'Brien's test. Nonoperative management has failed. MRI reveals a detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps tenodesis
Explanation
In young, active overhead athletes, a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that fails conservative management is best treated with arthroscopic repair of the superior labrum. Biceps tenodesis is generally reserved for older patients or revision settings.
Question 3989
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes an MR arthrogram. The imaging shows extravasation of contrast inferiorly and a characteristic 'J-sign' of the axillary pouch, without a definitive Bankart lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ALPSA lesion
Explanation
A HAGL lesion represents an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral insertion. The classic MR arthrogram finding is the 'J-sign', whereby contrast extends inferiorly due to the lack of the normal axillary pouch containment.
Question 3990
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 52-year-old male trips and falls on an outstretched hand. He now presents with right shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he has 20 degrees of increased passive external rotation compared to the left shoulder and a positive 'lift-off' test. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus tendon
Explanation
The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear results in weakness of internal rotation (positive lift-off or belly press test) and an increase in passive external rotation due to the loss of anterior soft-tissue restraint.
Question 3991
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 17-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral vague shoulder pain. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, extreme generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 8/9), and apprehension with both anterior and posterior translation, but no history of acute dislocation. What is the initial treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
Explanation
Multidirectional instability (MDI) typically presents in hyperlax individuals without a distinct traumatic event. The mainstay of initial treatment is prolonged physical therapy focusing on dynamic stabilizers (rotator cuff and periscapular muscles).
Question 3992
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old male with a massive, retracted, irreparable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons presents with chronic pain and weakness. The subscapularis and deltoid are entirely intact, and there is no evidence of glenohumeral arthritis. He desires to improve his active external rotation. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears, intact subscapularis, and no arthritis. It restores active elevation and external rotation.
Question 3993
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. Pathologic GIRD is widely believed to be primarily driven by which of the following anatomic changes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in throwing athletes is primarily caused by contracture of the posteroinferior capsule, responding to repetitive eccentric loads during the deceleration phase of throwing. Treatment involves sleeper stretches.
Question 3994
Topic: Knee Sports
Microfracture is a marrow-stimulating technique used to treat full-thickness chondral defects. The resulting repair tissue differs biochemically from native hyaline cartilage predominantly by having a higher concentration of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I collagen
Explanation
Microfracture stimulates the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. Unlike native hyaline cartilage, which is rich in type II collagen and aggrecan, the resulting fibrocartilage repair tissue contains predominantly type I collagen and has inferior long-term biomechanical properties.
Question 3995
Topic: Knee Sports
Following a microfracture procedure for a focal chondral defect in the medial femoral condyle, the resultant repair tissue is primarily composed of which of the following collagen types?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I
Explanation
Microfracture stimulates the release of marrow elements, leading to the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. This repair tissue is biomechanically inferior to normal hyaline cartilage because it is primarily composed of Type I collagen rather than Type II collagen.
Question 3996
Topic: Knee Sports
Microfracture of a full-thickness articular cartilage defect relies on marrow stimulation to form a repair tissue. Which of the following best characterizes the predominant collagen type in this repair tissue?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I collagen
Explanation
Microfracture stimulates the formation of fibrocartilage, which is predominantly composed of Type I collagen. Unlike native hyaline cartilage (Type II collagen), fibrocartilage has inferior biomechanical properties and is less durable over time.
Question 3997
Topic: Knee Sports
During clinical examination of a knee, applying a varus stress at 30 degrees of flexion primarily tests the integrity of which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at the knee, and it is best isolated at 30 degrees of flexion. At extension, secondary stabilizers like the posterior capsule contribute to varus stability.
Question 3998
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has isolated weakness of the deltoid and teres minor. The injured nerve exits the axilla through a space bounded by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres major, teres minor, long head of triceps, humerus
Explanation
The axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery pass through the quadrangular space. This space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 3999
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The rotator interval of the shoulder is a distinct anatomical space containing the long head of the biceps and the coracohumeral ligament. Which of the following structures forms the superior border of this interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis tendon
Explanation
The rotator interval is bounded superiorly by the anterior margin of the supraspinatus tendon. It is bounded inferiorly by the superior margin of the subscapularis tendon and medially by the base of the coracoid process.
Question 4000
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of external rotation of the shoulder. Atrophy is noted only in the infraspinatus fossa. The suprascapular nerve is likely entrapped at which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.
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