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Question 3981

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of looseness. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign that does not reduce with external rotation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

The initial management for multidirectional instability (MDI) is a prolonged trial (at least 6 months) of physical therapy focusing on strengthening the dynamic stabilizers. Surgical stabilization is reserved for cases strictly refractory to conservative care.

Question 3982

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old elite volleyball player has isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which anatomic location is the nerve most likely compressed?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (often by a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior SLAP tear) results in isolated infraspinatus weakness. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 3983

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following represents the primary biomechanical goal of a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) using a dermal allograft for a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear?

. Reversing glenoid retroversion
. Preventing superior translation of the humeral head
. Restoring active internal rotation strength
. Preventing anterior translation of the humeral head
. Directly repairing the supraspinatus tendon to the footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reversing glenoid retroversion


Explanation

Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) utilizes a graft to replace the deficient superior capsule. Its primary biomechanical function is to serve as a static restraint, preventing superior migration of the humeral head and restoring the glenohumeral fulcrum.

Question 3984

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% bone loss of the anterior-inferior glenoid width. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Humeral head osteochondral allografting
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in the setting of recurrent instability is an indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) addresses the bone defect and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon.

Question 3985

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation, and he has severe pain with attempted external rotation. Standard AP radiographs appear surprisingly normal. Which of the following represents the most likely pathognomonic lesion on advanced imaging or axillary radiograph?

. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Bankart lesion
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear
. Subcoracoid dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

Seizures or electrical shocks classically cause posterior shoulder dislocations, which lock the arm in internal rotation. The characteristic impaction fracture on the anteromedial humeral head is a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 3986

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Active forward flexion and abduction are symmetric to the contralateral side. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the nerve compression most likely occurring?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus (abduction) and infraspinatus (external rotation).

Question 3987

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following muscle pairings constitutes the primary transverse plane force couple responsible for maintaining the humeral head centered on the glenoid during active shoulder motion?

. Deltoid and Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis and Infraspinatus/Teres minor
. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus
. Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi
. Trapezius and Serratus anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid and Supraspinatus


Explanation

The transverse force couple is composed of the subscapularis anteriorly and the infraspinatus/teres minor posteriorly. This balance is critical for glenohumeral stability and allows active elevation even in the presence of a supraspinatus tear.

Question 3988

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An 18-year-old male pitcher complains of right shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Examination shows a positive O'Brien's test. Nonoperative management has failed. MRI reveals a detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Biceps tenotomy
. Coracoacromial ligament release
. Anterior capsular plication

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In young, active overhead athletes, a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that fails conservative management is best treated with arthroscopic repair of the superior labrum. Biceps tenodesis is generally reserved for older patients or revision settings.

Question 3989

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes an MR arthrogram. The imaging shows extravasation of contrast inferiorly and a characteristic 'J-sign' of the axillary pouch, without a definitive Bankart lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. GLAD lesion
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A HAGL lesion represents an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral insertion. The classic MR arthrogram finding is the 'J-sign', whereby contrast extends inferiorly due to the lack of the normal axillary pouch containment.

Question 3990

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 52-year-old male trips and falls on an outstretched hand. He now presents with right shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he has 20 degrees of increased passive external rotation compared to the left shoulder and a positive 'lift-off' test. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear results in weakness of internal rotation (positive lift-off or belly press test) and an increase in passive external rotation due to the loss of anterior soft-tissue restraint.

Question 3991

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 17-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral vague shoulder pain. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, extreme generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 8/9), and apprehension with both anterior and posterior translation, but no history of acute dislocation. What is the initial treatment of choice?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) typically presents in hyperlax individuals without a distinct traumatic event. The mainstay of initial treatment is prolonged physical therapy focusing on dynamic stabilizers (rotator cuff and periscapular muscles).

Question 3992

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old male with a massive, retracted, irreparable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons presents with chronic pain and weakness. The subscapularis and deltoid are entirely intact, and there is no evidence of glenohumeral arthritis. He desires to improve his active external rotation. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Biceps rerouting
. Subscapularis transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears, intact subscapularis, and no arthritis. It restores active elevation and external rotation.

Question 3993

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. Pathologic GIRD is widely believed to be primarily driven by which of the following anatomic changes?

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
. Laxity of the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Hypertrophy of the coracoacromial ligament
. Subscapularis tightness
. Biceps anchor avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in throwing athletes is primarily caused by contracture of the posteroinferior capsule, responding to repetitive eccentric loads during the deceleration phase of throwing. Treatment involves sleeper stretches.

Question 3994

Topic: Knee Sports

Microfracture is a marrow-stimulating technique used to treat full-thickness chondral defects. The resulting repair tissue differs biochemically from native hyaline cartilage predominantly by having a higher concentration of:

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Aggrecan
. Water
. Hyaluronic acid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. Unlike native hyaline cartilage, which is rich in type II collagen and aggrecan, the resulting fibrocartilage repair tissue contains predominantly type I collagen and has inferior long-term biomechanical properties.

Question 3995

Topic: Knee Sports

Following a microfracture procedure for a focal chondral defect in the medial femoral condyle, the resultant repair tissue is primarily composed of which of the following collagen types?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IX
. Type X

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the release of marrow elements, leading to the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. This repair tissue is biomechanically inferior to normal hyaline cartilage because it is primarily composed of Type I collagen rather than Type II collagen.

Question 3996

Topic: Knee Sports

Microfracture of a full-thickness articular cartilage defect relies on marrow stimulation to form a repair tissue. Which of the following best characterizes the predominant collagen type in this repair tissue?

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Type IX collagen
. Type X collagen
. Type XI collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the formation of fibrocartilage, which is predominantly composed of Type I collagen. Unlike native hyaline cartilage (Type II collagen), fibrocartilage has inferior biomechanical properties and is less durable over time.

Question 3997

Topic: Knee Sports

During clinical examination of a knee, applying a varus stress at 30 degrees of flexion primarily tests the integrity of which of the following structures?

. Popliteofibular ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Iliotibial band
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at the knee, and it is best isolated at 30 degrees of flexion. At extension, secondary stabilizers like the posterior capsule contribute to varus stability.

Question 3998

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has isolated weakness of the deltoid and teres minor. The injured nerve exits the axilla through a space bounded by which of the following structures?

. Teres major, teres minor, long head of triceps, humerus
. Teres major, teres minor, long head of triceps
. Teres major, long head of triceps, lateral head of triceps
. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis
. Coracoid, clavicle, superior scapular border

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major, teres minor, long head of triceps, humerus


Explanation

The axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery pass through the quadrangular space. This space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 3999

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator interval of the shoulder is a distinct anatomical space containing the long head of the biceps and the coracohumeral ligament. Which of the following structures forms the superior border of this interval?

. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bounded superiorly by the anterior margin of the supraspinatus tendon. It is bounded inferiorly by the superior margin of the subscapularis tendon and medially by the base of the coracoid process.

Question 4000

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of external rotation of the shoulder. Atrophy is noted only in the infraspinatus fossa. The suprascapular nerve is likely entrapped at which anatomical location?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrangular space
. Triangular space
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.