This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4001
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 31-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Abduction strength is normal, and there is visible atrophy of the infraspinatus without supraspinatus involvement. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve. At which precise anatomical location is the compression occurring?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch selectively compresses the distal branches, resulting in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness.
Question 4002
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus would result in weakness of all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major
Explanation
The posterior cord innervates the deltoid, latissimus dorsi, subscapularis, and the extensors of the arm and forearm. The pectoralis major is innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves, which arise from the medial and lateral cords respectively.
Question 4003
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a posterior approach to the shoulder, the quadrilateral space is identified to locate the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. Which muscle serves as the inferior border of this anatomical space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 4004
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
The surgical safe zone for the placement of a lateral portal in hip arthroscopy or pins in the proximal femur is determined by the course of the superior gluteal nerve. On average, how far proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter does the superior gluteal nerve course?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1-2 cm
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve courses approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Dissection or pin placement proximal to this zone risks denervation of the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.
Question 4005
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a massive rotator cuff tear involving the subscapularis and supraspinatus, the biceps tendon is noted to be unstable. Which anatomical structures form the medial and lateral borders of the rotator interval that typically stabilize the long head of the biceps?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus
Explanation
The rotator interval is bounded superiorly/laterally by the supraspinatus and inferiorly/medially by the subscapularis. It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.
Question 4006
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI shows isolated atrophy of the teres minor muscle. Which of the following anatomic boundaries define the space where the affected nerve is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of the humerus
Explanation
The patient has quadrilateral space syndrome, compressing the axillary nerve. The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 4007
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals profound atrophy of the infraspinatus but normal bulk and strength of the supraspinatus. Entrapment of the involved nerve is most likely caused by a paralabral cyst located at which of the following anatomic structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (often by a paralabral cyst) causes isolated infraspinatus weakness, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles.
Question 4008
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During knee arthroscopy, a peripheral, longitudinal tear of the medial meniscus is identified in the "red-red" zone. Which of the following arteries provides the primary blood supply to this peripheral portion of the meniscus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle genicular artery
Explanation
The peripheral 10% to 30% of the medial meniscus is vascularized primarily by the inferior medial genicular artery. This rich blood supply enables the healing of peripheral meniscal tears following surgical repair.
Question 4009
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) repair, the surgeon focuses on the attachment of the long head of the biceps tendon. The long head of the biceps tendon originates from the supraglenoid tubercle and which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid process
Explanation
The long head of the biceps tendon originates from the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula and blends extensively with the superior glenoid labrum. This structural connection is why injuries to the biceps anchor often involve SLAP tears.
Question 4010
Topic: Knee Sports
On an MRI of the knee, an intact meniscofemoral ligament is identified. The ligament of Wrisberg is characterized by its anatomic relationship to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Which description is correct?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It passes anterior to the PCL to attach to the medial femoral condyle.
Explanation
The meniscofemoral ligaments connect the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey passes anterior to the PCL, while the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the PCL.
Question 4011
Topic: Knee Sports
Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) requires accurate femoral tunnel placement. Where is the anatomic origin of the MPFL on the medial femur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Directly on the peak of the adductor tubercle
Explanation
The anatomic femoral footprint of the MPFL is located in a saddle-shaped depression between the adductor tubercle (superiorly) and the medial epicondyle (inferiorly). Proper isometric placement of the femoral graft is critical for successful reconstruction.
Question 4012
Topic: Knee Sports
During a physical examination, the knee demonstrates increased varus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion but is stable in full extension. Which structure provides the primary restraint to varus stress at 30 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral capsule
Explanation
The fibular collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary static restraint to varus stress at all angles of knee flexion, but its isolation is tested best at 30 degrees of flexion, where the posterolateral corner and cruciate ligaments are relaxed.
Question 4013
Topic: Knee Sports
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles that exhibit unique tension patterns throughout the arc of knee motion. Which of the following statements correctly describes the biomechanics of these bundles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion and controls anterior translation.
Explanation
The anteromedial (AM) bundle tightens in flexion and acts as the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation. The posterolateral (PL) bundle tightens in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory instability.
Question 4014
Topic: Knee Sports
Injury to the posterolateral corner of the knee can result in significant rotatory and varus instability. Which of the following structures is the primary static stabilizer against external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
Explanation
The popliteofibular ligament is the primary static restraint to external tibial rotation. The LCL primarily restrains varus stress, whereas the popliteus tendon acts as a dynamic stabilizer.
Question 4015
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old overhead athlete presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Electromyography reveals denervation of the infraspinatus with a normal supraspinatus. Where is the most likely anatomic site of nerve entrapment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst) affects only the infraspinatus branch, preserving supraspinatus function.
Question 4016
Topic: Knee Sports
The medial meniscus of the knee is injured more frequently than the lateral meniscus, largely due to its restricted mobility. Which anatomic attachment primarily limits the translation of the medial meniscus during knee motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The medial meniscus is firmly attached to the joint capsule and the deep medial collateral ligament (meniscofemoral and meniscotibial components). This rigid peripheral fixation prevents it from displacing to avoid shear forces, unlike the more mobile lateral meniscus.
Question 4017
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old male sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee, resulting in a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon must identify the femoral attachments of the LCL and the popliteus tendon. What is the correct anatomical relationship of the popliteus tendon origin relative to the LCL femoral footprint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and inferior
Explanation
The popliteus tendon inserts on the lateral femoral condyle consistently anterior and inferior to the femoral attachment of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Recognizing this anatomic relationship is critical during anatomic posterolateral corner reconstructions.
Question 4018
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During arthroscopy for a suspected meniscus tear, the surgeon evaluates the peripheral blood supply to determine the healing potential of a repair. What is the primary arterial supply to the peripheral aspects of the medial and lateral menisci?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle genicular artery
Explanation
The peripheral 10% to 30% of the menisci (the red-red zone) is vascularized by a perimeniscal capillary plexus originating from the superior and inferior, medial and lateral genicular arteries. The central portions rely on diffusion from synovial fluid.
Question 4019
Topic: Knee Sports
During placement of a retrograde intramedullary nail for a femur fracture, the starting point is made in the intercondylar notch. The surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring which of the following ligamentous structures that attaches to the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) originates from the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. The standard retrograde femoral nail starting point is strictly anterior to the PCL origin to avoid damaging the ACL.
Question 4020
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The upper and lower subscapular nerves provide critical motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. These nerves originate from which specific portion of the brachial plexus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral cord
Explanation
Both the upper and lower subscapular nerves originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. The posterior cord also gives rise to the thoracodorsal, axillary, and radial nerves.
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