This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3961
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old overhead athlete presents with insidious onset, vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals normal strength in forward elevation and internal rotation, but objective weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. What is the underlying pathology causing this weakness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Compression of the axillary nerve
Explanation
A cyst in the spinoglenoid notch typically results from a posterior superior labral tear and compresses the suprascapular nerve distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation).
Question 3962
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old woman presents with bilateral shoulder pain and feelings of instability. She has a positive sulcus sign, generalized ligamentous hyperlaxity, and apprehension with extreme ranges of motion but no history of acute dislocation. What is the mainstay of initial treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supervised physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
Explanation
This patient has multidirectional instability (MDI). The cornerstone of treatment for MDI is an extended course of physical therapy focusing on strengthening the periscapular stabilizers and the rotator cuff to provide dynamic joint stability.
Question 3963
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate athlete is evaluated for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a Hill-Sachs lesion that is determined to be "off-track". What is the primary clinical significance of an "off-track" lesion in surgical planning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It requires isolated arthroscopic soft tissue repair.
Explanation
An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion means the defect will engage the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is abducted and externally rotated. This requires addressing the defect directly, either via remplissage or a bony augmentation procedure, to prevent recurrent instability.
Question 3964
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 48-year-old man sustains an acute, traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction in the emergency department, he is noted to have persistent, profound weakness in active forward elevation and external rotation, though axillary nerve sensation is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transient brachial plexopathy
Explanation
In patients over 40 years old, an acute traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation is highly associated with an acute rotator cuff tear. Profound weakness in elevation and external rotation post-reduction mandates advanced imaging (MRI) to rule out a massive cuff tear.
Question 3965
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging demonstrates a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
Explanation
In the setting of recurrent anterior instability with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), a bone-block procedure such as the Latarjet is indicated. Soft-tissue repairs alone (e.g., Bankart) have an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario.
Question 3966
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain after a fall. Physical examination reveals a positive belly-press test and negative lift-off test. Passive range of motion testing is most likely to reveal which of the following compared to the contralateral normal shoulder?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased passive external rotation
Explanation
A positive belly-press test with a negative lift-off test suggests an isolated tear of the upper subscapularis. A physical examination hallmark of a subscapularis tear is increased passive external rotation due to the loss of the anterior restraints.
Question 3967
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During arthroscopy for a 45-year-old overhead athlete, you identify a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Measurement with a probe indicates the footprint exposed is 8 mm medial-to-lateral. What is the most widely accepted surgical approach for this specific lesion size?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Debridement of the tear without repair
Explanation
The normal medial-to-lateral dimension of the supraspinatus footprint is approximately 14-16 mm. A tear exposing 8 mm represents >50% footprint involvement, which is the generally accepted threshold for surgical repair (either in-situ or via takedown).
Question 3968
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old weightlifter presents with chronic, vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination demonstrates normal forward elevation, normal strength in internal rotation, and symmetric active external rotation in adduction. However, he has marked weakness in external rotation when the arm is abducted to 90 degrees. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. At what anatomic location is this cyst most likely compressing the nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
Isolated weakness of the infraspinatus (tested via external rotation in 90 degrees of abduction) indicates compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 3969
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old female presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Arthroscopy reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The defect tracks parallel to the anterior glenoid rim during internal rotation
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is a posterolateral humeral head defect that aligns parallel to the anterior glenoid rim and "drops in" or engages during abduction and external rotation, leading to instability. This typically requires a remplissage or bone grafting procedure.
Question 3970
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During an arthroscopic stabilization for anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion. How does this differ anatomically from a classic Bankart lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The labrum is detached with a complete tear of the anterior periosteum
Explanation
In an ALPSA lesion, the anterior labrum is detached from the glenoid rim, but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact, allowing the labroligamentous complex to displace and heal medially on the glenoid neck. A classic Bankart lesion involves a complete tear of the periosteum.
Question 3971
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. On physical examination, he is unable to maintain his arm in external rotation against gravity when the arm is supported in 90 degrees of abduction, causing his hand to drop to his mouth when attempting to blow a horn. This "Hornblower's sign" is most indicative of severe fatty infiltration in which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus
Explanation
A positive Hornblower's sign (inability to actively maintain external rotation in 90 degrees of abduction) is highly specific for a tear and advanced fatty infiltration of the teres minor. The infraspinatus is primarily responsible for external rotation with the arm at the side.
Question 3972
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During the open Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. Which of the following correctly describes the handling of the subscapularis muscle to allow exposure and transfer of the bone block?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complete tenotomy of the subscapularis at its insertion
Explanation
The classic Latarjet procedure approaches the anterior glenoid by performing a horizontal split through the mid-substance of the subscapularis muscle, separating the upper two-thirds from the lower one-third. This preserves the musculotendinous unit and dynamic stability.
Question 3973
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of slipping with overhead activities. Examination reveals positive sulcus signs bilaterally, positive apprehension and relocation tests, and generalized ligamentous laxity.
What is the initial treatment of choice for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
Explanation
This patient has multidirectional instability (MDI). The cornerstone and initial treatment of choice for MDI is a prolonged, structured physical therapy program focusing on strengthening the periscapular stabilizers and rotator cuff musculature.
Question 3974
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Biomechanically, active shoulder elevation can be maintained in the setting of a massive supraspinatus tear if the "transverse force couple" remains intact. Which two muscles primarily comprise this critical transverse force couple?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid and Supraspinatus
Explanation
The transverse force couple balances anterior and posterior forces to keep the humeral head centered on the glenoid during active elevation. It is primarily composed of the subscapularis anteriorly and the infraspinatus (and teres minor) posteriorly.
Question 3975
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old male is evaluated for a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a generalized seizure. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head impression defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 25% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone
Explanation
For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion between 20% and 40% of the articular surface, filling the defect with the subscapularis tendon alone (McLaughlin) or the lesser tuberosity (modified McLaughlin) is the standard treatment to restore stability and prevent the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid.
Question 3976
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Following rotator cuff repair, tendon-to-bone healing progresses through distinct biological phases. During the early proliferative phase (1 to 3 weeks post-repair), which type of collagen is predominantly synthesized to form the initial scar tissue matrix?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I
Explanation
During the early proliferative phase of tendon healing, fibroblasts predominantly synthesize Type III collagen, which provides early, disorganized scaffolding. This is gradually remodeled into the stronger, more organized Type I collagen over subsequent months.
Question 3977
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
Explanation
Glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% in the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability is an indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Soft tissue repairs have unacceptably high failure rates in this setting.
Question 3978
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with a chronic, massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has severe weakness in external rotation and active elevation, but subscapularis function remains intact. He has minimal glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate tendon transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfers are indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears in younger, active patients. An intact or repairable subscapularis is highly recommended for a successful latissimus dorsi transfer.
Question 3979
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after falling onto an outstretched arm. Physical examination reveals a positive bear-hug test and increased passive external rotation of the shoulder. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus tendon
Explanation
The bear-hug test, belly-press test, and lift-off test evaluate subscapularis function. A tear of the subscapularis often presents with increased passive external rotation due to the loss of its anterior restraint.
Question 3980
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old man undergoes magnetic resonance arthrography (MRA) for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The radiologist notes a 'J-sign' on the coronal fluid-sensitive sequences, representing a capsuloligamentous injury. What specific lesion does this finding describe?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ALPSA lesion
Explanation
Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) produces a 'J-sign' on MRI arthrography. The normal U-shaped axillary pouch drops down into a J-shape due to the detachment of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humeral neck.
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