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Question 3841

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows a 25-degree deficit in internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and a posterosuperior labral tear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subcoracoid impingement
. Internal impingement
. Primary external impingement
. SLAP tear type IV
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during extreme abduction and external rotation, causing the undersurface of the rotator cuff to impinge against the posterosuperior labrum. It is highly associated with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD).

Question 3842

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain. On physical examination, he demonstrates weakness with internal rotation when the arm is placed behind the back and lifted away from the body. An MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which physical examination test would also most likely be positive?

. Jobe's test
. Hornblower's sign
. Bear hug test
. O'Brien's active compression test
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jobe's test


Explanation

The bear hug test and the lift-off test are specific for subscapularis pathology. Hornblower's evaluates the teres minor, while Jobe's test evaluates the supraspinatus.

Question 3843

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old woman complains of bilateral shoulder instability and pain. She has a history of joint hyperlaxity. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and apprehension in multiple positions. She has failed 6 months of dedicated physical therapy. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)
. Open or arthroscopic inferior capsular shift
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

For multidirectional instability (MDI) that fails conservative management, an inferior capsular shift (open or arthroscopic) is the procedure of choice to reduce redundant capsular volume. Bony procedures like Latarjet are contraindicated.

Question 3844

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 50-year-old overhead athlete is diagnosed with a Type II SLAP tear. After failing conservative treatment, he undergoes arthroscopic surgery. Which of the following treatments is most supported by current literature for this patient demographic?

. Debridement of the labrum only
. SLAP repair using suture anchors
. Open Bankart repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement of the labrum only


Explanation

In middle-aged and older patients (typically >40 years), biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and functional outcomes compared to SLAP repair, which has a significantly higher rate of postoperative stiffness and reoperation.

Question 3845

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of a posterior shoulder dislocation on a standard anteroposterior (AP) view?

. Inferior displacement of the humeral head below the glenoid
. A lightbulb sign due to fixed internal rotation of the humeral head
. A prominent greater tuberosity profile
. Superior migration of the humeral head
. A Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior displacement of the humeral head below the glenoid


Explanation

On an AP radiograph, a posterior shoulder dislocation classically presents with the "lightbulb sign" due to fixed internal rotation of the humerus, hiding the greater tuberosity profile. Axillary views are required to definitively confirm the dislocation.

Question 3846

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation resulting in a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. He is manually reduced in the emergency department. Three weeks later, he continues to have severe weakness in external rotation and elevation. He has a positive Hornblower's sign. An MRI demonstrates a retracted tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with grade 3 fatty infiltration. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

. Physical therapy for 6 months
. Arthroscopic primary repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy for 6 months


Explanation

In a young patient with an irreparable posterosuperior cuff tear (indicated by high-grade fatty infiltration and retraction) and no arthritis, superior capsular reconstruction or tendon transfer is indicated. Primary repair has an unacceptably high failure rate with advanced fatty infiltration.

Question 3847

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a contraindication to isolated soft-tissue stabilization. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the treatment of choice to restore the bony arc and provide a sling effect.

Question 3848

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with inability to actively externally rotate his shoulder and a positive hornblower's sign following a massive rotator cuff tear. Assuming the subscapularis is intact and the tear is irreparable, which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Coracobrachialis transfer
. Teres major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfers are indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore active external rotation and forward elevation. Pectoralis major transfers are typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 3849

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man sustained a posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Radiographs reveal a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open posterior capsulorrhaphy
. Transfer of the subscapularis into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface is best treated with a McLaughlin procedure or its modification (transfer of the lesser tuberosity). Lesions greater than 40-50% generally require arthroplasty.

Question 3850

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player complains of isolated, painless weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?

. Positive lift-off test
. Positive Jobe (empty can) test
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Weakness in both abduction and external rotation
. Positive belly-press test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive lift-off test


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and subsequent atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.

Question 3851

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of "slipping." Examination shows a sulcus sign of 2 cm bilaterally, positive apprehension, and generalized ligamentous laxity. There is no history of a distinct traumatic dislocation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Immobilization in external rotation for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and bilateral, characterized by generalized laxity. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged course (minimum 3-6 months) of structured physical therapy focusing on dynamic stabilizers.

Question 3852

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient with a massive rotator cuff tear demonstrates "pseudoparalysis" of the shoulder, being unable to actively elevate the arm past 60 degrees. Anesthetic injection into the subacromial space does not improve active motion. What is the primary biomechanical deficit in this shoulder?

. Loss of the anterior coronal force couple
. Loss of the transverse and coronal force couples
. Isolated loss of the subscapularis function
. Complete axillary nerve palsy
. Deltoid detachment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of the anterior coronal force couple


Explanation

Pseudoparalysis in massive rotator cuff tears occurs due to the loss of the coronal and transverse force couples. This prevents the humeral head from being compressed into the glenoid, allowing the deltoid to cause superior migration rather than elevation.

Question 3853

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization procedure, the surgeon identifies an avulsion of the anterior labrum where the intact anterior scapular periosteum has stripped and displaced medially on the glenoid neck. What is the correct term for this lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion
. GLAD (Glenolabral Articular Disruption) lesion
. HAGL (Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament) lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

An ALPSA lesion involves an anterior labral tear where the scapular periosteum remains intact but strips medially. It allows the labroligamentous complex to heal in an incompetent, medially displaced position and must be mobilized laterally during repair.

Question 3854

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 50-year-old man presents with a suspected subscapularis tendon rupture after a fall. Which of the following physical examination tests is most specific and sensitive for diagnosing a full-thickness tear of the upper border of the subscapularis tendon?

. Neer impingement sign
. Jobe (empty can) test
. Bear hug test
. Hornblower's sign
. O'Brien active compression test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neer impingement sign


Explanation

The bear hug and belly-press tests are highly specific and sensitive for upper subscapularis tears. In contrast, the lift-off test requires full internal rotation and typically assesses the lower subscapularis muscle belly.

Question 3855

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the context of anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is used to determine whether a Hill-Sachs lesion will engage. Which of the following correctly defines an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion?

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is lateral to the glenoid track
. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is medial to the glenoid track
. The lateral margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is medial to the glenoid track
. The lesion involves strictly the articular cartilage
. The lesion is entirely within the expected contact area of the glenoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is lateral to the glenoid track


Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion has a medial margin that extends further medial than the medial margin of the glenoid track. This lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation, often necessitating a remplissage.

Question 3856

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is planned for a 55-year-old laborer with an irreparable, massive supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear. To optimize the biomechanical success of the SCR, which of the following native structures MUST be intact or repairable?

. Biceps long head tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Glenohumeral middle ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps long head tendon


Explanation

Superior capsular reconstruction acts to tether the humeral head and prevent superior migration. For it to function correctly and restore glenohumeral kinematics, the anterior structures, specifically the subscapularis tendon, must be intact or fully repairable.

Question 3857

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains a fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure is indicated for patients with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), especially in high-demand contact athletes. Soft tissue procedures alone, such as an arthroscopic Bankart repair, have an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of significant bone loss.

Question 3858

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with persistent shoulder pain and profound weakness 3 weeks after an acute, first-time anterior glenohumeral dislocation. The dislocation was reduced in the emergency department, and radiographs confirm a concentric joint. Which of the following is the most common associated injury responsible for his current symptoms?

. Axillary nerve injury
. Brachial plexus neurapraxia
. Bankart lesion
. Rotator cuff tear
. Proximal humerus fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve injury


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years of age, the incidence of a concomitant rotator cuff tear with a first-time anterior dislocation is extremely high (up to 30-80%). Persistent pain and weakness after reduction in this age group should prompt an MRI to evaluate the rotator cuff.

Question 3859

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a generalized seizure. CT scan reveals an anterior articular impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation
. Open reduction and transfer of the subscapularis/lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Latarjet procedure
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation


Explanation

A modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the subscapularis tendon with or without the lesser tuberosity into the defect) is indicated for reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface. Defects >40-50% generally require arthroplasty.

Question 3860

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old male weightlifter complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch with associated muscle edema. The cyst most likely originated from which of the following?

. Superior labral tear from anterior to posterior (SLAP)
. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterior labral tear
. Subscapularis tear
. Coracoacromial ligament disruption

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior labral tear from anterior to posterior (SLAP)


Explanation

Paralabral cysts at the spinoglenoid notch cause isolated suprascapular nerve compression affecting only the infraspinatus (weakness in external rotation). These cysts are highly associated with adjacent posterior labral tears.