5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 26-year-old patient undergoes an arthroscopic anterior stabilization. During diagnostic arthroscopy, the anterior labrum is found to be avulsed from the glenoid rim and displaced medially, having healed to the medial scapular neck along with the intact underlying periosteum. Which of the following eponymous terms describes this lesion?

A 22-year-old male sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. MRI reveals a 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is indicated to directly address the humeral head defect and prevent it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim?

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and positive lift-off and belly-press tests. MRI demonstrates a chronic, massive, irreparable tear of the subscapularis tendon. The supraspinatus and infraspinatus are completely intact. Which tendon transfer is most commonly recommended to address this specific deficit?

A 32-year-old male is evaluated for chronic shoulder pain. On clinical examination, you suspect a SLAP tear. Which of the following provocative tests is characterized by the patient reporting deep shoulder pain when the arm is forward elevated to 90 degrees, adducted 10 degrees, and internally rotated against resistance, which then improves with external rotation?

A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following a primary dislocation 2 years ago. Advanced imaging demonstrates a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 65-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. The tuberosity fragment is displaced 1.5 cm superiorly. Which muscle group is the primary deforming force responsible for this superior displacement?

A 38-year-old man presents with severe left shoulder pain and the arm locked in internal rotation after experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. An AP radiograph demonstrates a symmetric "lightbulb" appearance of the humeral head. What is the expected associated humeral head bone defect?

A 55-year-old man exhibits increased external rotation and weakness with internal rotation after a fall on an outstretched hand. Clinical examination reveals positive belly-press and lift-off tests. Which associated long head of the biceps (LHB) pathology is most commonly observed during arthroscopy in this setting?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterolateral shoulder pain and isolated, visible atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. MRI reveals a large paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely anatomic location of the nerve compression?

A 65-year-old patient suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, the patient demonstrates profound weakness in abduction and external rotation. Electromyography confirms axillary nerve neurapraxia. Which additional injury typically completes the "terrible triad of the shoulder" in this age group?

During shoulder arthroscopy for recurrent anterior instability, the surgeon notes a detached anterior labrum that is displaced medially and inferiorly along the glenoid neck. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact. What is the correct term for this lesion?

A 45-year-old man falls while skiing and presents with weakness in internal rotation. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which structure is most likely injured?

When comparing double-row to single-row rotator cuff repair techniques, biomechanical studies consistently demonstrate that double-row constructs provide which of the following?

A 40-year-old man has a locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago. A CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 40% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 25-year-old athlete has recurrent anterior shoulder instability despite a prior arthroscopic Bankart repair. An MRI arthrogram reveals extravasation of contrast extending inferiorly in the axillary pouch into the anatomic neck of the humerus forming a "J-sign". What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation is full and strong. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which labral pathology is most commonly associated with this finding?

During open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture via a deltopectoral approach, how does the axillary nerve typically course in relation to the operative field?

In evaluating a patient with anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is used to assess bone loss. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered "off-track" if it:

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his third episode of anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals a 28% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability?

A 45-year-old male laborer sustained a massive, retracted, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function, active forward elevation to 100 degrees, and no glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option to improve function?