5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 48-year-old man falls on an outstretched arm and is diagnosed with an isolated, complete rupture of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for this injury?

When evaluating a patient with a massive rotator cuff tear for a potential surgical repair, which of the following preoperative MRI findings is the strongest predictor of structural failure after repair?

In the management of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the "track" concept is used to evaluate interacting bone loss. An arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with an arthroscopic Remplissage is most appropriately indicated for which of the following scenarios?

A 16-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of the shoulders "sliding out of joint." Examination shows a sulcus sign of 2+ bilaterally, hyperlaxity of the elbows and knees, and positive apprehension tests without a distinct history of trauma. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old man undergoes an MRI arthrogram for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The radiologist notes a "J-sign" on the coronal sequences, representing extravasation of contrast into the axillary recess. This imaging finding is pathognomonic for which of the following lesions?

The Latarjet procedure provides stability to the anterior shoulder through a "triple blocking" effect. While the osseous block provides static resistance, the dynamic sling effect in abduction and external rotation is provided by which of the following structures?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with superior shoulder pain and positive O'Brien and Speed's tests. MRI reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. Based on current literature, which of the following surgical options offers the most reliable clinical outcome and highest rate of return to work for this patient?

A 42-year-old tennis player undergoes diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy for persistent pain. The surgeon visualizes a fraying and tearing of the supraspinatus tendon from the articular side. This specific lesion is commonly referred to by which of the following acronyms?

According to the suspension bridge biomechanical model of the rotator cuff proposed by Burkhart, stress is effectively transmitted across the crescent area of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus insertions by a thickened band of capsular tissue. What is this structure called?

Which of the following is considered the most accurate and reliable imaging method for preoperative quantification of glenoid bone loss in a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability?

During an open approach for a massive rotator cuff tear, the surgeon must mobilize the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Excessive medial traction can cause a stretch injury to the suprascapular nerve. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic path of this nerve?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. On examination, he demonstrates a positive bear-hug test and a positive belly-press test, but normal external rotation strength. Which tendon is most likely injured?

Based on the glenoid track concept, which of the following defines an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 35-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department following an unprovoked generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation and he cannot actively externally rotate. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. Which bony defect is most likely present?

A 48-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late-cocking phase of throwing. MRI shows articular-sided partial tearing of the supraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. Which structure is the rotator cuff abutting to cause this pathology?

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, how does an ALPSA (anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion) lesion mechanically differ from a classic Bankart lesion?

During a massive rotator cuff repair, you identify a retracted subscapularis tendon. To safely mobilize it, you must be aware of its primary innervation. The subscapularis is innervated by branches from which cord of the brachial plexus?

An 18-year-old competitive swimmer presents with multidirectional instability of the shoulder. She has completed 6 months of an aggressive periscapular stabilization and strengthening program without improvement. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?