5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 25-year-old male sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals an isolated increase in external tibial rotation of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral side when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. The external rotation normalizes and is symmetric at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

During diagnostic arthroscopy for a 28-year-old patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes an intact anteroinferior labrum but observes a U-shaped capsular tear avulsed from the anatomic neck of the humerus in the axillary pouch. What is the diagnosis?

A 24-year-old male presents 6 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction complaining of a lack of full terminal extension. Sagittal MRI reveals that the tibial tunnel was placed too anteriorly. The graft is most likely impinging against which of the following structures?

A 24-year-old male overhead athlete undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Findings include an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate management alongside an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shoulder pain and the arm locked in internal rotation after sustaining a severe electrical shock. Radiographs confirm a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 25% of the articular surface. Following closed reduction, what is the preferred definitive surgical intervention?

A 28-year-old man undergoes a Latarjet procedure for refractory anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he complains of weakness in elbow flexion and numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. Clinical examination reveals a positive O'Brien's test. MRI arthrogram demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear without concomitant rotator cuff pathology. Based on current evidence, what is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of recurrent instability following an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair for anterior shoulder instability?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and feeling like her shoulders slip out of place. Examination reveals generalized ligamentous laxity, a positive sulcus sign, and apprehension in anterior, posterior, and inferior directions. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Six months following an uneventful ACL reconstruction using a hamstring autograft, a patient complains of a painful, audible click and an inability to achieve full terminal extension. MRI demonstrates a rounded, nodular soft tissue mass located anterior to the ACL graft in the intercondylar notch. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain exclusively during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus tendon and a peel-back lesion of the posterosuperior labrum. What is the primary diagnosis?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents for definitive management. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss with an associated engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 24-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On physical examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side compared to the normal side when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely injured structure?

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a witnessed seizure. Imaging reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion comprising 30% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. After successful open reduction, the shoulder remains unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate treatment for the humeral head defect?

A 21-year-old female recreational skier felt a "pop" in her knee during a twisting fall. An AP radiograph in the emergency department reveals a small, elliptical bony avulsion fragment just lateral to the lateral tibial plateau.

This radiographic finding is most highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Magnetic resonance arthrography demonstrates a superior labral tear extending from anterior to posterior (Type II SLAP lesion). Which of the following mechanisms is considered the primary etiology for this specific injury in overhead throwing athletes?

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic imaging reveals a Bankart lesion, 10% anterior glenoid bone loss, and a large Hill-Sachs lesion that engages the anterior glenoid rim on dynamic 3D CT modeling. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department after falling on his outstretched hand. Radiographs confirm an anteroinferior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, he notes decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. If this neurologic deficit persists, weakness in which of the following muscles is most likely to be observed?