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Question 3641

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 28-year-old athlete is undergoing a complex multi-ligament knee reconstruction. The surgeon is reviewing the anatomy of the native posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) to optimize tunnel placement. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomy and biomechanics of the primary functional bundle of the PCL?

. The anteromedial bundle is the largest and tightens in flexion
. The posterolateral bundle is the largest and tightens in extension
. The anterolateral bundle is the largest and tightens in flexion
. The posteromedial bundle is the largest and tightens in extension
. The anterolateral bundle is the smallest and tightens in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial bundle is the largest and tightens in flexion


Explanation

The PCL is composed of two main bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The anterolateral bundle becomes tight in knee flexion, whereas the posteromedial bundle tightens in extension.

Question 3642

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau. What is the most commonly associated ligamentous injury?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes a Segond fracture, an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament complex from the lateral tibial plateau. It is highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 3643

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain.

MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. Following arthroscopic repair, which of the following postoperative range of motion restrictions is most critical to protect the repair during the first 4 weeks?

. Avoid combined abduction and external rotation
. Avoid internal rotation behind the back
. Avoid isolated forward elevation
. Avoid cross-body adduction
. Avoid combined extension and internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avoid combined abduction and external rotation


Explanation

Type II SLAP repairs involve reattaching the superior labrum and biceps anchor. Combined abduction and external rotation places maximal peel-back stress on the superior labrum-biceps anchor complex and must be avoided early postoperatively.

Question 3644

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During knee arthroscopy on a 45-year-old male, a posterior horn medial meniscus root tear is identified. Biomechanical studies indicate that failure to repair this lesion is most equivalent to which of the following?

. A 25% partial meniscectomy
. A 50% partial meniscectomy
. Total meniscectomy
. Anterior horn meniscal root tear
. Medial collateral ligament sprain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 25% partial meniscectomy


Explanation

A medial meniscus posterior root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to extrusion. Biomechanically, this results in contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, accelerating joint degeneration.

Question 3645

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old female skier presents with a multiligamentous knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury
. Isolated lateral collateral ligament injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion but not at 90 degrees. A combined PCL and PLC injury would show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 3646

Topic: Knee Sports

A 20-year-old gymnast has persistent anterolateral ankle pain 6 months following a severe inversion injury. MRI reveals a 12-mm osteochondral lesion of the talus (OLT) on the anterolateral dome. Initial management with immobilization and physical therapy has failed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Ankle arthrodesis
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Subtalar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle arthrodesis


Explanation

For symptomatic osteochondral lesions of the talus less than 1.5 cm in diameter that have failed nonoperative management, arthroscopic debridement and bone marrow stimulation (microfracture) is the gold standard primary surgical treatment.

Question 3647

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female dancer experiences recurrent lateral patellar instability.

Imaging reveals a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 22 mm and a normal patellar height. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction
. Lateral retinacular release
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Distalizing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction


Explanation

A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is a biomechanical risk factor for lateral patellar dislocation and an indication for a medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (Fulkerson osteotomy) to correct the abnormal extensor mechanism vector.

Question 3648

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male sustains a shoulder injury following a seizure. Examination reveals the arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open reduction and lesser tuberosity transfer (McLaughlin procedure)
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica casting


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface requires defect filling to prevent recurrent posterior instability. The modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity/subscapularis into the defect) is indicated for these medium-sized defects.

Question 3649

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following native structures serves as the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation at 0 to 20 degrees of knee flexion?

. Lateral retinaculum
. Vastus medialis obliquus (VMO)
. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
. Medial patellotibial ligament
. Medial meniscopatellar ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral retinaculum


Explanation

The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is the primary passive restraint to lateral patellar translation in early knee flexion (0 to 20 degrees), contributing approximately 50-60% of the restraining force.

Question 3650

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 21-year-old collegiate football receiver sustains an acute, non-displaced Jones fracture (zone 2 of the proximal fifth metatarsal). He is eager to return to play this season. What is the most appropriate management?

. Short leg cast non-weight-bearing for 6 weeks
. Walking boot for 4 weeks
. Intramedullary screw fixation
. Plantar fascia release
. Excision of the proximal pole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short leg cast non-weight-bearing for 6 weeks


Explanation

In high-level or elite athletes, acute Jones fractures are typically treated with intramedullary screw fixation to expedite return to play and reduce the risk of nonunion compared to conservative management.

Question 3651

Topic: Knee Sports

During reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the femoral tunnel is drilled too anteriorly. What is the most likely clinical consequence of this technical error?

. Loss of terminal extension
. Loss of deep flexion
. Increased anterior translation in extension only
. Patellar fracture
. Graft rupture during deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of terminal extension


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel in ACL reconstruction causes the graft to be relatively short in flexion and tightens excessively as the knee bends. This leads to a loss of deep flexion and a high risk of graft rupture during flexion.

Question 3652

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old overhead throwing athlete develops gradual onset of posterior shoulder pain. Examination demonstrates a positive impingement sign and localized tenderness at the posterior joint line when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism for this condition?

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis
. Contact between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid
. Traction injury to the suprascapular nerve
. Degeneration of the acromioclavicular joint
. Anterosuperior escape of the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis


Explanation

The scenario describes internal impingement, common in overhead throwers. It is caused by the abutment of the articular surface of the rotator cuff and greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum during late cocking (abduction and external rotation).

Question 3653

Topic: Knee Sports

A 12-year-old male soccer player with widely open physes sustains an acute, complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). He has recurrent episodes of giving way. To minimize the risk of physeal growth arrest or angular deformity during reconstruction, which of the following techniques is most appropriate?

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone
. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone reconstruction
. All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction
. Primary ACL repair without augmentation
. Conservative management with a hinged knee brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone


Explanation

All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction avoids drilling through the distal femoral and proximal tibial physes, significantly reducing the risk of premature physeal closure and angular deformity in skeletally immature patients with significant growth remaining.

Question 3654

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Open capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard for anterior shoulder instability in the presence of critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), which would otherwise result in a high failure rate if treated with an isolated soft-tissue Bankart repair.

Question 3655

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old skier sustains a hyperextension and varus force to her knee. On physical examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which injury pattern does this indicate?

. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear
. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injuries
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear


Explanation

An increase in external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, which normalizes at 90 degrees of flexion, is diagnostic of an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 3656

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 35-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. When comparing modern operative repair to modern functional nonoperative management (using strict early weight-bearing and functional bracing protocols), operative intervention is most closely associated with which of the following?

. Significantly lower re-rupture rates
. A higher risk of sural nerve injury and wound complications
. Superior plantarflexion strength at 5-year follow-up
. No difference in return-to-play timing
. A lower risk of deep vein thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significantly lower re-rupture rates


Explanation

Recent high-quality meta-analyses demonstrate that when strict functional rehabilitation protocols are utilized, re-rupture rates are equivalent between operative and nonoperative management. However, operative management carries a higher risk of wound complications and sural nerve injury.

Question 3657

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old male feels a pop in the back of his knee while squatting. An MRI demonstrates a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific injury?

. It is equivalent to a total meniscectomy in altering contact pressures.
. It primarily causes increased posterior tibial translation.
. It decreases overall patellofemoral contact pressures.
. It prevents the progression of medial compartment osteoarthritis.
. It isolates the hoop stresses solely to the anterior horn.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is equivalent to a total meniscectomy in altering contact pressures.


Explanation

A meniscal root tear completely disrupts the ability of the meniscus to convert axial loads into circumferential hoop stresses. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, predisposing the knee to rapid joint degeneration.

Question 3658

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with a "dead arm" and pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear. What is the most widely recommended initial management?

. Immediate arthroscopic Type II SLAP repair
. Open subpectoral biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic biceps tenotomy
. Physical therapy focusing on correcting glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) and scapular dyskinesia
. Open anterior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate arthroscopic Type II SLAP repair


Explanation

In elite overhead throwers, initial management for SLAP tears should emphasize physical therapy to correct GIRD and scapular dyskinesia. Surgical intervention (SLAP repair) in this population often leads to a failure to return to pre-injury levels of play and is reserved for failed conservative treatment.

Question 3659

Topic: Knee Sports
A 32-year-old male sustains an isolated, acute Grade III posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear in a dashboard injury. Nonoperative management is selected. Which of the following bracing strategies provides the best biomechanical environment for ligament healing?
. A dynamic brace that applies an anteriorly directed force to the posterior calf
. A hinged knee brace locked in 90 degrees of flexion
. A cylinder cast in 30 degrees of flexion
. A knee immobilizer strictly in full extension
. An unloader brace applying a valgus force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A dynamic brace that applies an anteriorly directed force to the posterior calf


Explanation

A dynamic anterior drawer brace (e.g., Jack PCL brace) counteracts gravity and hamstring forces, holding the tibia in an anteriorly reduced position. This prevents the posterior sag that can lead to healing of the PCL in an elongated, incompetent position.

Question 3660

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old collegiate soccer player sustains a noncontact pivoting injury to her right knee. MRI confirms an isolated ACL rupture. She undergoes anatomic single-bundle ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During graft harvest, the infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve is transected. Where is she most likely to experience numbness?

. Anterior aspect of the proximal tibia
. Lateral aspect of the patella
. Medial aspect of the ankle
. Plantar aspect of the foot
. Dorsal first web space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior aspect of the proximal tibia


Explanation

The infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve courses transversely across the anterior knee and is frequently injured during patellar tendon harvest. This predictably causes numbness over the anterior proximal tibia.