Question 3601
Topic: 5. Sports MedicineCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Hinged knee brace and early mobilization
Practice Set 181 of 360
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Hinged knee brace and early mobilization
During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization for recurrent shoulder instability, an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Glenoid bone loss is measured at 8%. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjunctive procedure?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
A 24-year-old athlete undergoes evaluation for a suspected knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric normal external rotation at 90 degrees. This finding indicates an isolated injury to which of the following structures?
. Posterior cruciate ligament
A 21-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with vague posterior shoulder pain exacerbated by bench pressing. Examination reveals increased posterior translation with a load-and-shift test and pain with the jerk test. What is the initial treatment of choice?
. Open posterior capsular shift
Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, a patient has persistent rotational instability (positive pivot shift) despite a negative Lachman test. Radiographs show the femoral tunnel placed at the 12 o'clock position in the intercondylar notch. What is the functional consequence of this specific tunnel placement?
. Restores anterior-posterior stability but fails to restore rotational stability
A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher reports a "dead arm" and deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. A type II SLAP tear is suspected. Which of the following pathomechanical processes is most responsible for this specific injury pattern?
. Tensile failure of the anterior capsule
During a single-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using an Achilles tendon allograft aiming to reconstruct the anterolateral bundle, at what degree of knee flexion should the graft typically be tensioned to best restore normal knee kinematics?
. Full extension (0 degrees)
A 30-year-old man continues to have anterior shoulder instability after a seemingly successful arthroscopic Bankart repair. A revision MRI arthrogram is obtained.
The imaging demonstrates contrast extending inferiorly into the axillary pouch with a characteristic "J-sign" at the humeral insertion of the capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. ALPSA lesion
During reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, anatomical landmarks are critical. In an isolated injury to the popliteofibular ligament, what is the expected primary physical exam finding?
. Increased varus laxity at 0 degrees of flexion
A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals the anterior labrum is stripped and displaced medially down the glenoid neck, with the anterior periosteum remaining intact. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?
. Bankart lesion
A 19-year-old collegiate soccer player is scheduled for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon discusses using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. Compared to hamstring autografts, BTB autograft is most uniquely associated with which of the following postoperative complications?
. Saphenous nerve neuroma
A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates an anterior glenoid bone defect.
At what percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is a Latarjet procedure or bone grafting generally indicated over an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair?
. 5-10%
. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 2-4 weeks
A 35-year-old male with a history of a seizure disorder presents with an unrecognized locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenohumeral cartilage is otherwise preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Closed reduction and spica cast application
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain, decreased throwing velocity, and pain specifically during the late cocking phase. Clinical examination reveals a positive O'Brien test. What pathomechanical process is most commonly responsible for this patient's condition?
. Anterior translation of the humeral head during acceleration
A 21-year-old football player is struck on the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia. On physical examination, he demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee, but normal external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which structure(s) is/are most likely injured?
. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
A 28-year-old male presents with recurrent apprehension 1 year after undergoing a Latarjet procedure. CT imaging reveals significant resorption of the coracoid graft. What technical error is most commonly associated with graft osteolysis following a Latarjet procedure?
. Low-grade infection
A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an anterior glenoid bone defect of 15% and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Arthroscopic isolated Bankart repair
During an endoscopic ACL reconstruction, an inexperienced surgeon places the femoral tunnel entirely too far anteriorly (high at the 12 o'clock position in the notch). What abnormal graft tension pattern will this non-anatomical placement cause?
. Tight in extension and loose in flexion
A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates an anteroinferior labral tear and 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors