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Question 3601

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 30-year-old recreational skier sustains an isolated, acute grade III medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear without meniscus or cruciate ligament involvement. What is the most appropriate initial management?
. Immediate surgical repair of the MCL
. Hinged knee brace and early mobilization
. Immobilization in a cylinder cast in full extension for 6 weeks
. Primary reconstruction with a hamstring autograft
. Surgical repair combined with a pes anserinus transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hinged knee brace and early mobilization


Explanation

Isolated grade III MCL tears are typically managed non-operatively with a hinged knee brace to protect against valgus stress while allowing early range of motion. Surgical intervention is generally reserved for multi-ligament injuries, intra-articular entrapment of the ligament, or chronic instability.

Question 3602

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization for recurrent shoulder instability, an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Glenoid bone loss is measured at 8%. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjunctive procedure?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)
. Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis)
. Anterior glenoid structural bone grafting
. Subscapularis transfer (McLaughlin procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

The remplissage procedure (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) is indicated for engaging, off-track Hill-Sachs lesions when glenoid bone loss is subcritical (<15-20%). It effectively converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing engagement over the anterior glenoid rim.

Question 3603

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes evaluation for a suspected knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric normal external rotation at 90 degrees. This finding indicates an isolated injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner (popliteus complex and LCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The dial test evaluates for posterolateral corner (PLC) and PCL injuries. Increased external rotation of >10 degrees compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of flexion, but normal rotation at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the PLC.

Question 3604

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with vague posterior shoulder pain exacerbated by bench pressing. Examination reveals increased posterior translation with a load-and-shift test and pain with the jerk test. What is the initial treatment of choice?

. Open posterior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Rotator cuff strengthening focused on the subscapularis
. Physical therapy emphasizing posterior deltoid and periscapular stabilizers
. Posterior glenoid bone block augmentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open posterior capsular shift


Explanation

The initial treatment for isolated, recurrent posterior shoulder instability, particularly in athletes without significant bone loss, is non-operative management. This focuses on physical therapy to strengthen the posterior shoulder musculature and periscapular stabilizers.

Question 3605

Topic: Knee Sports

Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, a patient has persistent rotational instability (positive pivot shift) despite a negative Lachman test. Radiographs show the femoral tunnel placed at the 12 o'clock position in the intercondylar notch. What is the functional consequence of this specific tunnel placement?

. Restores anterior-posterior stability but fails to restore rotational stability
. Restores rotational stability but fails to restore anterior-posterior stability
. Causes notch impingement in terminal extension
. Leads to rapid graft stretch-out in deep flexion
. Increases the risk of a medial meniscus root tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restores anterior-posterior stability but fails to restore rotational stability


Explanation

Placing the femoral tunnel in a strictly vertical position (12 o'clock) during ACL reconstruction fails to restore normal knee kinematics. While it may limit anterior tibial translation, it poorly controls rotational instability, resulting in a persistent pivot shift.

Question 3606

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher reports a "dead arm" and deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. A type II SLAP tear is suspected. Which of the following pathomechanical processes is most responsible for this specific injury pattern?

. Tensile failure of the anterior capsule
. Internal impingement of the rotator cuff
. The peel-back mechanism of the biceps anchor
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Microinstability of the posterior band of the IGHL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tensile failure of the anterior capsule


Explanation

Type II SLAP tears in overhead throwing athletes are primarily caused by the peel-back mechanism. During the late cocking phase, maximal external rotation and abduction create a torsional force at the base of the biceps, causing the posterosuperior labrum to peel off the glenoid.

Question 3607

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During a single-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using an Achilles tendon allograft aiming to reconstruct the anterolateral bundle, at what degree of knee flexion should the graft typically be tensioned to best restore normal knee kinematics?

. Full extension (0 degrees)
. 30 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 90 degrees
. 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full extension (0 degrees)


Explanation

During a single-bundle PCL reconstruction aiming to recreate the anterolateral bundle, the graft should be tensioned and fixed at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This is because the anterolateral bundle of the native PCL is tightest in flexion.

Question 3608

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man continues to have anterior shoulder instability after a seemingly successful arthroscopic Bankart repair. A revision MRI arthrogram is obtained.

The imaging demonstrates contrast extending inferiorly into the axillary pouch with a characteristic "J-sign" at the humeral insertion of the capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Engaging Hill-Sachs lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion involves the tearing of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral insertion. On MRI arthrography, this presents as the characteristic "J-sign" as contrast extends inferiorly into the axillary pouch through the defect.

Question 3609

Topic: Knee Sports

During reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, anatomical landmarks are critical. In an isolated injury to the popliteofibular ligament, what is the expected primary physical exam finding?

. Increased varus laxity at 0 degrees of flexion
. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion
. Increased posterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion
. Increased valgus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased varus laxity at 0 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The popliteofibular ligament is a primary restraint to external rotation. Injury to the PLC, including the popliteofibular ligament, typically presents with increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion.

Question 3610

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals the anterior labrum is stripped and displaced medially down the glenoid neck, with the anterior periosteum remaining intact. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. Perthes lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

An Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion involves medial displacement of the labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve. This distinguishes it from a standard Bankart lesion, where the periosteum is ruptured, and from a Perthes lesion, where the labrum is stripped but non-displaced.

Question 3611

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old collegiate soccer player is scheduled for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon discusses using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. Compared to hamstring autografts, BTB autograft is most uniquely associated with which of the following postoperative complications?

. Saphenous nerve neuroma
. Patella fracture
. Loss of deep knee flexion
. Isokinetic hamstring strength deficit
. Recurrent hemarthrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve neuroma


Explanation

Patella fracture and anterior knee pain are specific complications associated with the harvest of a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Saphenous nerve injury and hamstring weakness are more commonly associated with hamstring autograft harvests.

Question 3612

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates an anterior glenoid bone defect.

At what percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is a Latarjet procedure or bone grafting generally indicated over an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair?

. 5-10%
. 10-15%
. 20-25%
. 35-40%
. Greater than 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5-10%


Explanation

A critical glenoid bone loss of approximately 20-25% results in unacceptably high failure rates with soft-tissue Bankart repair alone. In these cases, a bony augmentation procedure such as a Latarjet is the recommended surgical management.

Question 3613

Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a "dashboard injury" in a motor vehicle collision. Physical examination and MRI confirm an isolated Grade III posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. What is the most appropriate initial management?
. Immediate single-bundle PCL reconstruction
. Immediate double-bundle PCL reconstruction
. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 2-4 weeks
. Cast immobilization in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks
. Primary surgical repair of the PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 2-4 weeks


Explanation

Isolated PCL injuries, even Grade III, have an excellent capacity for conservative healing. Initial management involves a hinged knee brace locked in full extension for 2 to 4 weeks to reduce posterior tibial sag, followed by progressive range of motion and quadriceps strengthening.

Question 3614

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male with a history of a seizure disorder presents with an unrecognized locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenohumeral cartilage is otherwise preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica cast application
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Subscapularis transfer (McLaughlin procedure) or lesser tuberosity transfer
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica cast application


Explanation

For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, transferring the subscapularis tendon (McLaughlin) or the lesser tuberosity (modified McLaughlin) into the defect prevents engagement and restores stability. Defects greater than 40% typically require structural allograft or arthroplasty.

Question 3615

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain, decreased throwing velocity, and pain specifically during the late cocking phase. Clinical examination reveals a positive O'Brien test. What pathomechanical process is most commonly responsible for this patient's condition?

. Anterior translation of the humeral head during acceleration
. Posterior capsular contracture causing a peel-back of the superior labrum
. Inferior capsular laxity resulting in multidirectional instability
. Coracoacromial ligament tightness
. Subscapularis insufficiency during the follow-through phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior translation of the humeral head during acceleration


Explanation

In overhead throwers, a contracted posteroinferior capsule leads to a posterosuperior shift of the humeral head in maximum abduction and external rotation. This creates a peel-back force on the biceps anchor, resulting in a type II SLAP tear.

Question 3616

Topic: Knee Sports

A 21-year-old football player is struck on the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia. On physical examination, he demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee, but normal external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which structure(s) is/are most likely injured?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
. Combined PCL and PLC
. Combined ACL and PCL
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) and PLC

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) causes increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion but not at 90 degrees. A combined PLC and PCL injury would demonstrate increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 3617

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male presents with recurrent apprehension 1 year after undergoing a Latarjet procedure. CT imaging reveals significant resorption of the coracoid graft. What technical error is most commonly associated with graft osteolysis following a Latarjet procedure?

. Low-grade infection
. Overhang of the graft lateral to the glenoid face
. Medial placement of the graft
. Use of titanium instead of bioabsorbable screws
. Failure to repair an associated SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low-grade infection


Explanation

Medial placement of the coracoid graft deprives it of mechanical loading from the humeral head. According to Wolff's law, this stress shielding leads to graft resorption and osteolysis, which can result in recurrent instability.

Question 3618

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an anterior glenoid bone defect of 15% and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic isolated Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Humeral head structural allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic isolated Bankart repair


Explanation

For patients with subcritical glenoid bone loss (less than 20%) but a substantial, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion (an off-track lesion), an arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) effectively prevents engagement and restores stability.

Question 3619

Topic: Knee Sports

During an endoscopic ACL reconstruction, an inexperienced surgeon places the femoral tunnel entirely too far anteriorly (high at the 12 o'clock position in the notch). What abnormal graft tension pattern will this non-anatomical placement cause?

. Tight in extension and loose in flexion
. Tight in flexion and loose in extension
. Loose in both flexion and extension
. Tight in both flexion and extension
. Isometry throughout the range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight in extension and loose in flexion


Explanation

A femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly (high in the notch) falls outside the isometric zone. As the knee moves from extension into flexion, the distance between the femoral and tibial tunnels increases, causing the graft to become tight in flexion and loose in extension, often leading to loss of flexion.

Question 3620

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates an anteroinferior labral tear and 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a classic indication for a bony augmentation procedure, most commonly the Latarjet procedure. Soft tissue repairs (Bankart) have an unacceptably high failure rate in the presence of critical anterior bone loss.