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Question 3581

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An elite overhead throwing athlete presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus but normal supraspinatus bulk. Which anatomical structure is most likely compressing the affected nerve?

. Transverse scapular ligament
. Spinoglenoid ligament
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Superior transverse scapular ligament
. Quadrilateral space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse scapular ligament


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing under the spinoglenoid ligament to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch causes isolated infraspinatus atrophy.

Question 3582

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A patient requires the creation of a posterolateral portal during ankle arthroscopy. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury during the establishment of this portal?

. Saphenous nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve runs just posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is at significant risk of iatrogenic injury when placing a posterolateral ankle arthroscopy portal.

Question 3583

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is at significant risk during the Latarjet procedure, particularly during medial retraction of the conjoined tendon. Injury results in biceps weakness and numbness in the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve distribution.

Question 3584

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old man sustains a dashboard injury to his knee during a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees. Which structures are most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament only
. Posterolateral corner only
. Posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Anterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament and posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament only


Explanation

An increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion with normal rotation at 90 degrees is the classic physical examination finding for an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 3585

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 13-year-old female soccer player with widely open physes requires surgical management for a complete ACL tear. To minimize the risk of physeal arrest while providing optimal stability, which of the following surgical techniques is most appropriate?

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft using standard transphyseal tunnels
. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction
. All-epiphyseal hamstring autograft reconstruction
. Transphyseal quadruple hamstring autograft with 10mm tunnels
. Achilles tendon allograft with a tibial bone block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft using standard transphyseal tunnels


Explanation

For skeletally immature patients with significant remaining growth, physeal-sparing or all-epiphyseal techniques utilizing soft tissue grafts minimize the risk of growth arrest. Crossing open physes with bone blocks or large-diameter tunnels is strictly contraindicated.

Question 3586

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging reveals a 22% anterior glenoid bone defect and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic isolated Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic isolated Bankart repair


Explanation

In the setting of critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20%) combined with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, isolated soft tissue repairs have an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet, is the definitive standard of care.

Question 3587

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter reports vague, deep posterior shoulder pain and a painful clicking sensation during the eccentric phase of the bench press. Examination demonstrates a positive jerk test. What is the most likely pathological finding?

. Anterosuperior labral tear
. Reverse Bankart lesion
. Bony Bankart lesion
. SLAP II tear
. ALPSA lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior labral tear


Explanation

A positive jerk test is a reliable indicator of posterior shoulder instability. The classic pathoanatomical lesion associated with posterior instability is a reverse Bankart lesion, defined as a detachment of the posterior labrum from the posterior glenoid rim.

Question 3588

Topic: Knee Sports

A 35-year-old patient involved in a motorcycle collision sustains a knee dislocation. After reduction, the patient has a foot drop and lacks sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which of the following specific ligamentous injury patterns is most highly associated with this neurologic deficit?

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Combined anterior cruciate and medial collateral ligament tear
. Combined posterior cruciate and medial collateral ligament tear
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner tear
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

Common peroneal nerve injuries frequently accompany severe knee trauma, particularly those involving the posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The nerve is tethered at the fibular neck, making it highly vulnerable to traction during significant varus and hyperextension mechanisms.

Question 3589

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and feeling like her shoulders 'slip out' when reaching overhead. She has a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity. After 9 months of dedicated physical therapy, she remains symptomatic. What is the surgical treatment of choice?

. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic inferior capsular shift
. Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thermal capsulorrhaphy


Explanation

For multidirectional instability (MDI) that fails prolonged nonoperative management, an arthroscopic or open capsular shift is the procedure of choice. This effectively reduces the capsular redundancy and volume, establishing joint stability without the high complication rates of thermal procedures.

Question 3590

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old football player is hit on the lateral aspect of his knee. He presents with medial-sided pain. Examination reveals 8 mm of medial joint line opening at 30 degrees of flexion with a firm endpoint, but he is completely stable to valgus stress at full extension. What is the recommended treatment?

. Immediate primary repair of the medial collateral ligament
. Reconstruction using a semitendinosus autograft
. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation
. Strict immobilization in a cylinder cast for 6 weeks
. Arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate primary repair of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The examination describes an isolated Grade II MCL tear (valgus laxity at 30 degrees, stability at 0 degrees). Isolated MCL injuries heal reliably with nonoperative management, consisting of a hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation.

Question 3591

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. O'Brien's active compression test is positive. An MRI arthrogram reveals a superior labral tear with detachment of the biceps anchor from the superior glenoid. What SLAP tear type is this, and what is the optimal management?
. Type I; arthroscopic debridement
. Type II; arthroscopic superior labrum repair
. Type III; open biceps tenodesis
. Type IV; excision of the bucket-handle tear
. Type V; Bankart repair with capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II; arthroscopic superior labrum repair


Explanation

A Type II SLAP tear involves detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the superior glenoid. In young overhead athletes, the standard initial surgical management is arthroscopic repair of the superior labrum.

Question 3592

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 32-year-old male presents with a ruptured ACL 3 years following a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft reconstruction. Radiographs and CT demonstrate significant widening of both the femoral and tibial tunnels, measuring 15 mm each. What is the most appropriate surgical plan?

. Single-stage revision utilizing a massive Achilles tendon allograft
. Two-stage revision starting with bone grafting of the tunnels
. High tibial osteotomy to alter the tibial slope
. Conservative management utilizing a custom derotational brace
. Primary repair of the ruptured graft with internal bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-stage revision utilizing a massive Achilles tendon allograft


Explanation

Significant tunnel widening (>12-14 mm) in the setting of a failed ACL reconstruction precludes adequate rigid fixation of a new graft. A two-stage revision, starting with bone grafting the tunnels followed by definitive reconstruction 4-6 months later, is the standard of care.

Question 3593

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, you note that the labrum is completely intact, but the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is avulsed off the humeral neck. What is the correct terminology for this specific lesion?

. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. Perthes lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) represents a tear of the IGHL from its humeral attachment rather than the glenoid labrum. Failure to recognize and address this lesion is a well-documented cause of recurrent postoperative instability.

Question 3594

Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old male sustains an isolated Grade III PCL tear during a soccer match. He is initially treated conservatively but returns 9 months later with continued complaints. Which of the following is the most widely accepted absolute indication for PCL reconstruction in this patient?
. Persistent anterior knee pain while ascending stairs
. Recurrent instability and 'giving way' during deceleration
. Inability to fully extend the knee
. Asymptomatic widening of the medial joint space
. A positive pivot shift test on examination

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent instability and 'giving way' during deceleration


Explanation

While the majority of isolated PCL tears are successfully treated nonoperatively, clear indications for reconstruction include persistent functional instability, combined ligamentous injuries, and symptomatic recurrent 'giving way', particularly during deceleration activities.

Question 3595

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for anterior shoulder instability, what is the anatomical landmark that dictates the maximum safe proximal osteotomy of the coracoid process to avoid destabilizing the clavicle and endangering the suprascapular nerve?

. The insertion of the pectoralis minor
. The conoid ligament
. The trapezoid ligament
. The coracoacromial ligament
. The base of the coracoid at the scapular notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The insertion of the pectoralis minor


Explanation

The coracoid osteotomy must be performed just distal to the coracoclavicular ligaments, specifically the conoid ligament, to prevent iatrogenic acromioclavicular instability. Remaining distal to the conoid also keeps the osteotomy well clear of the suprascapular notch and nerve.

Question 3596

Topic: Knee Sports

You are evaluating a 23-year-old patient with a suspected knee injury following a wrestling match. The Dial test is performed. The patient has 20 degrees greater external rotation on the injured side at 30 degrees of flexion, and 25 degrees greater external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most accurate diagnosis?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner injury
. Combined anterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner injury
. Isolated lateral collateral ligament injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament injury


Explanation

Increased external rotation of more than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion indicates a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. When this asymmetry persists or increases at 90 degrees of flexion, it signifies a combined PLC and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury.

Question 3597

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old rock climber with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations is found to have an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion but minimal glenoid bone loss. An arthroscopic Bankart repair with 'remplissage' is planned. Which structure is tenodesed into the humeral defect during this adjunctive procedure?

. Subscapularis tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The remplissage (French for 'filling') procedure involves converting an intra-articular Hill-Sachs lesion into an extra-articular defect by tenodesing the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the bony defect. This prevents the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during external rotation.

Question 3598

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate wrestler undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Postoperatively, what is the most common complication specifically associated with this graft choice compared to a hamstring autograft?

. Anterior knee pain
. Hamstring weakness
. Higher rate of traumatic re-rupture
. Arthrofibrosis requiring lysis of adhesions
. Deep space infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

The most common complication specific to a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft is anterior knee pain, particularly with kneeling. Hamstring grafts are more associated with temporary hamstring weakness and slightly higher revision rates in young athletes.

Question 3599

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Arthroscopic superior labral anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

A Latarjet procedure is indicated for patients with recurrent anterior instability and greater than 20-25% glenoid bone loss. Soft tissue procedures alone, such as an arthroscopic Bankart repair, have an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 3600

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old man sustains a dashboard injury to his right knee. Physical examination demonstrates a positive posterior sag sign. Which of the following bundles of the primary injured ligament is tightest in knee flexion?

. Anterolateral bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Anteromedial bundle
. Posterolateral bundle
. Meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle


Explanation

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is composed of the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM) bundles. The AL bundle is the larger of the two and is tightest in knee flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tightest in extension.