Question 1921
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsA 40-year-old man suffers a first-time seizure and sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin procedure)
