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Question 1921

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man suffers a first-time seizure and sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and prolonged immobilization
. Open reduction and transfer of the subscapularis into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin procedure)
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin procedure)


Explanation

For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface in a young, active patient, the modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. Transferring the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis into the defect durably restores joint stability.

Question 1922

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents with posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation strength is normal. Examination reveals atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Thoracic outlet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the distal branch supplying the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1923

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder pain and weakness. Clinical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. What is the most likely location of the labral tear associated with this condition?

. Posterior-superior
. Anterior-inferior
. Anterior-superior
. Posterior-inferior
. Superior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-superior


Explanation

Spinoglenoid notch cysts compressing the suprascapular nerve typically cause isolated infraspinatus atrophy. They are most commonly associated with posterior-superior labral tears, which allow joint fluid to form a one-way valve mechanism leading to the cyst.

Question 1924

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management to restore stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20% to 25% is a strong indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) successfully restores glenohumeral stability through bone augmentation and the sling effect of the conjoined tendon.

Question 1925

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 48-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. What is the most reliable surgical option for this specific patient?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic labral debridement
. Open coracoid transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In patients older than 40-45 years with a Type II SLAP tear, primary biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and functional improvement. It also carries lower complication rates and less postoperative stiffness compared to SLAP repair.

Question 1926

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic superior capsule reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

In a collision athlete with significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft tissue stabilization is associated with high failure rates. The Latarjet procedure provides a triple blocking effect (bone, sling, capsule) and is the gold standard for this scenario.

Question 1927

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus strength. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Which nerve is most likely compressed, and at what anatomical location?

. Axillary nerve at the quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch
. Suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
. Spinal accessory nerve at the posterior triangle
. Long thoracic nerve at the serratus anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated external rotation weakness and atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1928

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with an inability to actively elevate his arm above 45 degrees, despite full passive range of motion. MRI reveals a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. His acromiohumeral distance is 4 mm. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic primary rotator cuff repair
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Superior capsule reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has pseudoparalysis with a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear, advanced fatty infiltration, and proximal humeral migration. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice to restore stability and active elevation.

Question 1929

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old man presents with a locked shoulder in internal rotation after a generalized seizure. An axillary lateral radiograph confirms a posterior dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone
. Open reduction and subscapularis transfer (McLaughlin procedure)
. Latarjet procedure
. Humeral head osteoarticular allograft reconstruction
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Humeral head osteoarticular allograft reconstruction


Explanation

For posterior shoulder dislocations with a large reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20-40% of the articular surface, structural reconstruction of the defect (osteoarticular allograft) is indicated. Subscapularis transfer is typically reserved for defects <20%.

Question 1930

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT evaluation reveals 22% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Proximal humeral derotational osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

In the setting of significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>20%) and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, isolated soft tissue repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure restores the glenoid track and provides a sling effect to prevent engagement.

Question 1931

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after attempting to catch a falling heavy object. Physical examination reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side, and profound weakness on the belly-press test. MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tendon tear. The involved tendon normally inserts onto which of the following structures?

. Greater tuberosity
. Lesser tuberosity
. Coracoid process
. Superior glenoid tubercle
. Infraglenoid tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lesser tuberosity


Explanation

The patient's presentation and belly-press weakness strongly indicate an acute subscapularis tendon tear. The subscapularis tendon anatomically inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the proximal humerus.

Question 1932

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old manual laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He exhibits severe weakness in external rotation and elevation but has intact subscapularis function. He is considering a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to this procedure?

. Age greater than 40 years
. Intact teres minor
. Pseudoparalysis of forward elevation
. Mild glenohumeral osteoarthritis
. Subscapularis insufficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis insufficiency


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi transfer is used to restore external rotation and active elevation in irreparable posterosuperior tears. However, a deficient subscapularis is a contraindication because the anterior force couple must be intact for the transfer to succeed.

Question 1933

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man presents with a locked, internally rotated shoulder following a generalized seizure. Radiographs confirm a posterior glenohumeral dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 30% of the articular surface. After closed reduction, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Transfer of the infraspinatus tendon into the defect
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)


Explanation

Posterior dislocations with a significant reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (20-40% articular surface) are effectively managed with a McLaughlin procedure or its modification. This involves transferring the subscapularis tendon or the lesser tuberosity into the anteromedial defect.

Question 1934

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are 5/5. MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral ganglion cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical exam findings is most likely present?

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Positive lift-off test
. Decreased sensation over the lateral deltoid
. Medial scapular winging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch selectively compresses the distal branches of the suprascapular nerve, affecting only the motor supply to the infraspinatus. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1935

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old laborer has an irreparable, massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with an intact subscapularis. He lacks active external rotation. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

. Pectoralis major
. Pectoralis minor
. Lower trapezius
. Levator scapulae
. Biceps brachii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower trapezius


Explanation

Lower trapezius transfer (often with an interposition graft) is used to restore active external rotation in patients with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Pectoralis major transfers are typically utilized for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 1936

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which physical examination test provides the highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing an upper border subscapularis tear?

. Lift-off test
. Belly-press test
. Bear-hug test
. Hornblower's sign
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bear-hug test


Explanation

The bear-hug test has been shown to be highly sensitive and specific for upper subscapularis tendon tears. The lift-off test predominantly isolates the lower fibers of the subscapularis.

Question 1937

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a positive apprehension test, but pain is relieved with a relocation maneuver. What is the primary pathomechanics of this condition?

. Primary subacromial impingement
. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis
. Anterosuperior labral tearing
. Contact between the articular surface of the rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid
. Subcoracoid impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contact between the articular surface of the rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid


Explanation

Internal impingement in overhead throwing athletes occurs due to contact between the articular side of the posterosuperior rotator cuff and the posterosuperior labrum/glenoid during extreme abduction and external rotation.

Question 1938

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which of the following locations is the cyst most likely compressing the nerve?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch causes isolated infraspinatus weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch generally affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1939

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid is transferred through the subscapularis split. Which nerve is most at risk of injury when dissecting medial to the conjoint tendon?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve penetrates the coracobrachialis approximately 3-5 cm distal to the coracoid process. It is the structure most at risk when dissecting medial to the conjoint tendon during a Latarjet procedure.

Question 1940

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation this season. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. He wishes to return to contact sports. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

A glenoid bone loss of greater than 20-25% is a critical defect associated with high failure rates following soft-tissue (Bankart) repair alone. The Latarjet procedure transfers the coracoid process to the anterior glenoid, restoring the bony arc and providing a dynamic sling effect via the conjoined tendon.