This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1901
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old male complains of poorly localized right shoulder pain and weakness, predominantly when externally rotating his arm. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with weakness in external rotation. Supraspinatus strength is normal.
MRI is most likely to show:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness is highly suggestive of suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 1902
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus strength. An MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy.
Question 1903
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 28% glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
Explanation
For recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A coracoid transfer addresses the bony defect and provides a dynamic sling effect.
Question 1904
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows 15 degrees of internal rotation and 130 degrees of external rotation. What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peel-back of the superior labrum and posterior impingement
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead throwers leads to a biomechanical shift. This causes internal impingement, where the undersurface of the rotator cuff impinges against the posterosuperior glenoid, frequently creating a peel-back SLAP lesion.
Question 1905
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall onto an outstretched hand. On examination, he has increased passive external rotation. Which of the following physical examination tests would most likely be positive?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bear hug test
Explanation
Increased passive external rotation following acute trauma is highly suggestive of a subscapularis tear. The bear hug test, belly-press test, and lift-off test specifically evaluate the integrity of the subscapularis muscle.
Question 1906
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Following closed reduction, he is noted to have numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which muscle's function is most likely impaired?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during an anterior shoulder dislocation. It provides sensation to the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area) and motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor.
Question 1907
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The patient is active and desires to return to manual labor. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteochondral allograft reconstruction of the humeral head
Explanation
For reverse Hill-Sachs defects between 25% and 40%, structural bone grafting (osteochondral allograft) is typically recommended to restore articular congruity. Lesser tuberosity transfer (modified McLaughlin) is preferred for defects between 10% and 25%.
Question 1908
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus denervation and weakness in external rotation.
Question 1909
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old man undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 30% glenoid bone loss. The stabilizing "sling effect" provided by this procedure is primarily dependent on the dynamic tension of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability through a "sling effect" created by the conjoined tendon (short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis) pressing against the lower subscapularis and anterior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 1910
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 34-year-old recreational weightlifter complains of vague, poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI demonstrates isolated atrophy of the teres minor. The affected nerve is compressed in a space bordered by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, surgical neck of humerus
Explanation
The patient has quadrilateral space syndrome, compressing the axillary nerve. The quadrilateral space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 1911
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of severe, unrelenting shoulder pain that woke him from sleep. The pain has now begun to subside, but he has noticed profound weakness in overhead elevation and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder reveals no rotator cuff tear. EMG confirms acute denervation of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain followed by patchy weakness and atrophy of shoulder girdle muscles as the pain subsides.
Question 1912
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During pre-operative planning for a recurrent anterior shoulder instability patient, a 3D CT scan is obtained. The surgeon uses the 'best-fit circle' method on the sagittal en face view to calculate glenoid bone loss. At what threshold of anterior glenoid bone loss is an arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, making a bone block procedure (e.g., Latarjet) the standard recommendation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20% to 25%
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss is historically defined as >20-25%. At this threshold, soft-tissue procedures like Bankart repair have unacceptably high failure rates, and bony augmentation (e.g., Latarjet) is indicated.
Question 1913
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional rugby player has a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. He is planned for a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following describes the primary stabilizing mechanism of this procedure when the arm is in the abduction-external rotation (ABER) position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a 'triple effect'. Biomechanical studies demonstrate that in the vulnerable ABER position, the conjoint tendon acting as a dynamic sling across the inferior subscapularis and capsule provides the primary stabilizing force.
Question 1914
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior right shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination demonstrates isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but forward elevation and abduction strength are completely normal. An MRI is most likely to show a paralabral cyst in which of the following anatomic locations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated external rotation weakness (infraspinatus) with normal abduction (supraspinatus) indicates suprascapular nerve entrapment distal to the supraspinatus innervation, specifically at the spinoglenoid notch. Entrapment at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both muscles.
Question 1915
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In young, high-demand collision athletes with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet, is definitively indicated.
Question 1916
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 50-year-old man falls on an outstretched arm and experiences acute anterior shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals significantly increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lift-off test
Explanation
Increased passive external rotation following a traumatic event strongly suggests a subscapularis tear. The lift-off test specifically evaluates the integrity and strength of the subscapularis muscle.
Question 1917
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment further proximal at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus.
Question 1918
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with inability to flex his elbow and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve is at risk during the Latarjet procedure when the conjoint tendon is retracted medially. Injury results in weakness of elbow flexion (biceps, brachialis) and sensory loss over the lateral forearm via the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve.
Question 1919
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function and no glenohumeral arthritis. He desires to return to heavy labor. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore active external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear, an intact subscapularis, and no arthritis. It helps restore active forward elevation and external rotation.
Question 1920
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain lasting for two weeks, followed by profound weakness of his deltoid and supraspinatus. There is no history of trauma. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that resolves after a few weeks. It is immediately followed by patchy lower motor neuron weakness and atrophy, most commonly affecting the suprascapular and axillary nerve distributions.
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