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Question 1881

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old elite hockey player presents with insidious onset right groin pain that is exacerbated by prolonged sitting and deep squatting. Physical examination reveals a positive anterior impingement test (FADIR). Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees and normal acetabular version. If left untreated, the intra-articular pathology most characteristic of this specific morphology will primarily result in damage to which of the following structures?

. Posteroinferior acetabular cartilage
. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and labrum
. Ligamentum teres and fovea capitis
. Posterior labrum only
. Greater trochanteric bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and labrum


Explanation

The patient has cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), characterized by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction (alpha angle > 55 degrees). During hip flexion and internal rotation, the non-spherical cam lesion is forced into the acetabulum, creating shear forces that most commonly damage the anterosuperior labrum and lead to chondral delamination of the adjacent anterosuperior acetabular cartilage.

Question 1882

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with a gradual onset of anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation.

Radiographs show a prominent osseous bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction and an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What pattern of chondral damage is most classically associated with this specific deformity?

. Posteroinferior acetabular cartilage delamination
. Global articular cartilage thinning of the femoral head
. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage delamination with an initially intact labrum
. Primary tearing of the ligamentum teres with central chondral wear
. Posteromedial acetabular cartilage wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage delamination with an initially intact labrum


Explanation

This patient has a cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), characterized by decreased head-neck offset and an elevated alpha angle (>50-55 degrees). Cam impingement creates shear forces at the chondrolabral junction during hip flexion and internal rotation. This classically results in 'carpet breakdown' or delamination of the anterosuperior acetabular cartilage, often leaving the labrum intact or detaching it at the transition zone.

Question 1883

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain that is exacerbated by sitting in low chairs. Physical examination reveals a positive flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR) test. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 72 degrees on the lateral view with no evidence of acetabular retroversion. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of cartilage damage in this condition?

. Shear forces causing outside-in delamination of the acetabular cartilage at the chondrolabral junction
. Linear impaction leading to intra-substance labral degeneration
. Contrecoup injury to the posteroinferior acetabular cartilage
. Ischemic necrosis of the ligamentum teres
. Global pincer-type impingement from coxa profunda

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shear forces causing outside-in delamination of the acetabular cartilage at the chondrolabral junction


Explanation

The patient has pure Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), indicated by the elevated alpha angle (>55 degrees) and lack of retroversion/pincer signs. Cam lesions cause damage through an 'outside-in' mechanism during hip flexion, where the aspherical femoral head engages the acetabulum, creating shear forces that lead to delamination of the articular cartilage from the subchondral bone, usually at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction. Pincer impingement typically causes linear impaction and 'inside-out' labral tears.

Question 1884

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals a prominent alpha angle of 75 degrees and a normal lateral center-edge angle. Which of the following best describes the primary pathomechanics of his articular cartilage injury?

. Chondral delamination at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction due to shear forces
. Linear crushing of the labrum between the femoral neck and acetabular rim
. Global joint space narrowing resulting from subchondral sclerosis
. Labral hypertrophy secondary to capsular laxity
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head from repeated microtrauma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondral delamination at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction due to shear forces


Explanation

An elevated alpha angle (>50-55 degrees) is indicative of Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Cam impingement creates significant shear forces at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction as the non-spherical femoral head enters the acetabulum. This typically leads to 'outside-in' chondral delamination, often sparing the labrum itself in the early stages. Linear crushing of the labrum is characteristic of Pincer-type impingement.

Question 1885

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopic management of Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI) for a symptomatic Cam lesion, the surgeon performs an osteochondroplasty at the femoral head-neck junction. Extending the resection too far posterosuperiorly places which of the following anatomic structures at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Retinacular branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)
. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery (LFCA)
. Obturator artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retinacular branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)


Explanation

The major blood supply to the femoral head is provided by the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). Its retinacular branches perforate the joint capsule near the intertrochanteric crest and travel along the posterosuperior aspect of the femoral neck. When performing an osteochondroplasty for a Cam lesion, extending the resection into the posterosuperior quadrant poses a significant risk of injuring these vessels, which could lead to avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head. Resections are typically kept anterior and anterolateral to avoid this vascular territory.

Question 1886

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a "crossover sign" and a prominent ischial spine. These radiographic findings are most indicative of which of the following pathomorphologies?

. Femoral retroversion
. Acetabular retroversion
. Coxa profunda
. Protrusio acetabuli
. Cam impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular retroversion


Explanation

The crossover sign, prominent ischial spine sign, and posterior wall sign on an AP pelvis radiograph are classic indicators of acetabular retroversion. This represents a focal or global overcoverage associated with pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement.

Question 1887

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following radiographic parameters is most characteristic of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. Cam lesion at the anterolateral head-neck junction
. Alpha angle greater than 55 degrees
. Coxa profunda or acetabular retroversion
. Decreased femoral head-neck offset
. Pistol grip deformity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coxa profunda or acetabular retroversion


Explanation

Pincer impingement is characterized by focal or global overcoverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum. Key radiographic indicators include coxa profunda, protrusio acetabuli, and acetabular retroversion (evidenced by a cross-over sign).

Question 1888

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT shows 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic superior labral repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). It provides a triple blocking effect to stabilize the joint.

Question 1889

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness following a fall. Physical examination reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side, and a positive belly-press test. Which tendon is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

Increased passive external rotation and a positive belly-press or lift-off test are classic signs of a subscapularis tendon rupture. The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder.

Question 1890

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Exam reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with preserved supraspinatus muscle bulk. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Thoracic outlet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated weakness and atrophy. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1891

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher has posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a loss of internal rotation (GIRD) of 25 degrees. MRI shows articular-sided partial-thickness tearing of the posterior supraspinatus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subacromial impingement
. Internal impingement
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Suprascapular neuropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during late cocking and early acceleration, leading to articular-sided rotator cuff tears and posterosuperior labral fraying. It is strongly associated with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD).

Question 1892

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man who underwent anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty 5 years ago presents with progressively worsening shoulder pain.

The "rocking horse" phenomenon in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty, which leads to glenoid loosening, is most directly caused by:

. Superior migration of the humeral head due to rotator cuff failure
. Use of a metal-backed glenoid component
. Undersizing the humeral head
. Overtightening the subscapularis
. Retroversion of the humeral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior migration of the humeral head due to rotator cuff failure


Explanation

Superior migration of the humeral head due to rotator cuff insufficiency leads to eccentric superior loading of the glenoid. This creates the "rocking horse" effect and subsequent aseptic loosening.

Question 1893

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old man suddenly developed excruciating, unprovoked right shoulder pain 2 weeks ago that lasted for several days. As the pain subsided, he noted profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. EMG shows active denervation of the supraspinatus and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acute cervical radiculopathy
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Massive rotator cuff tear
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Herpes zoster

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parsonage-Turner syndrome


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with severe, acute-onset shoulder pain. This is followed by patchy muscle weakness and atrophy as the pain begins to improve.

Question 1894

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old male volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of his dominant shoulder. Abduction strength is normal. An MRI confirms a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following associated pathologies is most likely the root cause of this cyst?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterior labral tear
. Type II SLAP tear
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior labral tear


Explanation

A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch selectively compresses the suprascapular nerve branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. It is highly associated with posterior labral tears acting as a one-way valve.

Question 1895

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During the evaluation of a patient with a suspected rotator cuff tear, which of the following isolated physical examination findings is most specific for a complete tear of the subscapularis tendon?

. Positive Jobe's (empty can) test
. Positive Hornblower's sign
. Increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side
. Positive O'Brien active compression test
. Positive Speed's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side


Explanation

The subscapularis is a primary dynamic internal rotator and a crucial secondary static restraint to external rotation. A complete tear often manifests as notably increased passive external rotation compared to the uninjured side.

Question 1896

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability associated with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he exhibits profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the coracoid transfer?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. It is at significant risk of traction or direct transection during the Latarjet procedure, leading to biceps/brachialis weakness and lateral forearm numbness.

Question 1897

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator interval is a critical anatomic space in the shoulder that is often targeted in capsular release or plication. Which of the following structures are contained within this interval?

. Subscapularis tendon and the long head of the biceps tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament and the intra-articular long head of the biceps tendon
. Middle glenohumeral ligament and the short head of the biceps tendon
. Subscapularis tendon and the coracoacromial ligament
. Supraspinatus tendon and the superior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament and the intra-articular long head of the biceps tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the subscapularis and supraspinatus tendons. Its contents include the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL), and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1898

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a 20-degree loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI shows articular-sided partial tearing of the posterior supraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying.

What is the primary underlying pathophysiology?

. Subcoracoid impingement
. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Primary anterior capsular laxity
. Hypertrophy of the coracoacromial ligament
. Subscapularis tendon avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for internal impingement associated with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). The primary driver is a contracture of the posteroinferior capsule, leading to posterosuperior shift of the humeral head in maximum abduction.

Question 1899

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss.

Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Eden-Hybinette procedure using distal clavicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In patients with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has a high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the standard treatment to reconstruct the bony defect.

Question 1900

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old construction worker sustained an electrical shock and was diagnosed with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface.

The duration of dislocation is 2 weeks. What is the recommended treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica cast
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

For a reverse Hill-Sachs defect between 20% and 40% of the articular surface, a modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves transferring the lesser tuberosity or subscapularis into the defect to prevent engagement on the posterior glenoid rim.