Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 31-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness in shoulder external rotation. Abduction strength is normal. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. Where is the cyst most likely located?

A 22-year-old contact athlete experiences recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging demonstrates a 25% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 45-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness following a fall. Physical examination reveals a positive bear hug test and a positive belly press test. Which of the following rotator cuff tendons is most likely injured?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination shows isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus. An MRI confirms a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. Where is the most likely location of this cyst?

A 35-year-old male presents with two weeks of sudden, severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain. As the pain subsides, he develops profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. EMG shows denervation of the deltoid and supraspinatus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of nonoperative management. An MRI arthrogram shows an isolated Type II SLAP tear. What is the most predictable surgical treatment to relieve his pain and restore function?

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and stiffness after a seizure 6 weeks ago. Physical examination reveals an inability to externally rotate the shoulder beyond neutral. An axillary radiograph shows a defect on the anteromedial humeral head engaging the posterior glenoid. The defect involves 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which labral tear is most commonly associated with this pathology?

A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, severe shoulder weakness. He has an intact subscapularis, but MRI shows a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus (Goutallier stage 4). He has no glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?

A 21-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Imaging reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. He undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Which structure is carefully preserved and utilized to create a "sling" effect during this procedure?

A 25-year-old professional tennis player presents with posterior shoulder pain during the cocking phase of serving. Exam shows a positive relocation test and glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?

A 42-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 29-year-old professional tennis player reports progressive weakness in his serving arm. Examination demonstrates normal supraspinatus strength but 3/5 strength in external rotation with the arm at the side. Atrophy is noted only in the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

A 21-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus tendons, along with posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the primary pathoanatomic mechanism?

A 65-year-old man undergoes repair of a massive anterior rotator cuff tear (subscapularis) that is deemed irreparable intraoperatively. Which of the following tendon transfers is the most established option for restoring function?

During physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the 'Bear Hug' test and the 'Belly-Press' test are positive, but the 'Lift-Off' test is negative. Which anatomical portion of the subscapularis is most likely torn?

A 22-year-old professional rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals normal internal rotation and abduction strength, but noticeable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with an irreparable, massive, retracted posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. His subscapularis is completely intact. He demonstrates profound weakness in external rotation with a positive Hornblower's sign, but no glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?