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Question 1701

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old weightlifter presents with right shoulder pain and weakness after feeling a clunk during a heavy bench press exercise. He reports difficulty externally rotating the arm. A modified axillary radiograph is provided in Figure 5.

Imaging reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion that involves approximately 25% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone
. Open reduction and subscapularis transfer into the defect
. Open reduction and infraspinatus transfer into the defect
. Arthroscopic superior capsule reconstruction
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and subscapularis transfer into the defect


Explanation

The patient has suffered a posterior shoulder dislocation, classically associated with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head). For lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves the transfer of the subscapularis tendon (and sometimes the lesser tuberosity) into the anterior humeral head defect to prevent it from engaging the posterior glenoid rim. Infraspinatus transfer (Remplissage) is used for anterior dislocations with a standard Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 1702

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation one year ago. A 3D reconstructed CT scan of the glenoid demonstrates an 'inverted pear' appearance with approximately 26% anterior bone loss.

What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Arthroscopic Remplissage alone
. Rotator interval closure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% alters the biomechanics of the glenohumeral joint, resulting in an 'inverted pear' shaped glenoid. Soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) alone has an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario. Bony augmentation, such as the Latarjet procedure, is required to restore the articular arc and provide a 'sling' effect via the conjoined tendon.

Question 1703

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During hip arthroscopy for a 28-year-old hockey player with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), an osteochondroplasty is performed for a large cam lesion at the femoral head-neck junction. Resection of more than what percentage of the femoral neck diameter substantially increases the risk of an iatrogenic postoperative femoral neck fracture?

. 10%
. 20%
. 30%
. 40%
. 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30%


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that resecting more than 30% of the anterolateral femoral neck diameter significantly decreases the load to failure of the proximal femur, thereby increasing the risk of a catastrophic iatrogenic femoral neck fracture postoperatively.

Question 1704

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old woman presents with persistent anterior hip pain. Imaging shows a positive crossover sign, a center-edge angle of 45 degrees, and a labral tear. Which of the following is the defining pathomechanical feature of this specific type of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. An aspherical femoral head engaging the acetabulum during flexion
. Impingement of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) against the distal femoral neck
. Chondral delamination occurring primarily on the femoral head
. Linear contact between the acetabular rim and the femoral head-neck junction due to overcoverage
. Ischiofemoral narrowing leading to posterior impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Linear contact between the acetabular rim and the femoral head-neck junction due to overcoverage


Explanation

The scenario describes Pincer-type FAI, characterized by acetabular overcoverage (e.g., retroversion shown by a crossover sign, or deep socket/coxa profunda shown by an increased CE angle). The defining feature is linear contact (abutment) between the prominent acetabular rim and the femoral head-neck junction. Cam impingement, conversely, is caused by an aspherical femoral head.

Question 1705

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male presents with deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'pistol grip' deformity of the proximal femur. Which of the following radiographic parameters is most diagnostic of the Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) suspected in this patient?

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees
. Center-edge angle < 20 degrees
. Lateral center-edge angle > 40 degrees
. Tonnis angle > 15 degrees
. Presence of a crossover sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees


Explanation

Cam-type FAI is characterized by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction. An alpha angle greater than 55 degrees (typically measured on a cross-table lateral or Dunn view) is indicative of a Cam lesion. A center-edge angle < 20 degrees suggests developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), while a lateral center-edge angle > 40 degrees or a crossover sign indicates focal or global acetabular overcoverage, typical of Pincer-type FAI.

Question 1706

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with right shoulder weakness after a fall on an outstretched arm. He specifically complains of difficulty tucking in his shirt behind his back and bringing his hand to his abdomen. Physical examination reveals a positive bear-hug test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following special tests is also most likely to be positive in this patient?

. Hornblower's sign
. Belly-press test
. O'Brien active compression test
. Jobe's empty can test
. Yergason's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Belly-press test


Explanation

The patient's clinical presentation (weakness with internal rotation, increased passive external rotation, positive bear-hug test) is highly indicative of a subscapularis tendon tear. The belly-press test (Napoleon test) isolates the subscapularis and is positive when the patient cannot maintain pressure on their abdomen without extending the shoulder and flexing the wrist. Hornblower's sign evaluates the teres minor. O'Brien's test evaluates for SLAP tears or AC joint pathology. Jobe's test isolates the supraspinatus. Yergason's test evaluates the long head of the biceps.

Question 1707

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a noted decrease in pitching velocity. Physical exam reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the non-throwing shoulder, along with a loss of total arc of motion. What is the most common pathomechanical cause of symptomatic GIRD contributing to internal impingement in the overhead throwing athlete?

. Anterior capsular contracture
. Posteroinferior capsular contracture
. Acquired humeral retroversion
. Subscapularis tightness
. Coracohumeral ligament thickening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteroinferior capsular contracture


Explanation

Symptomatic GIRD (defined as a loss of internal rotation >20 degrees with a corresponding loss of total arc of motion >5 degrees) in overhead throwers is most commonly caused by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This contracture occurs due to repetitive eccentric microtrauma during the deceleration phase of throwing. The tight posteroinferior capsule causes a posterosuperior shift of the humeral head during the cocking phase, leading to internal impingement and placing increased strain on the superior labrum. Acquired humeral retroversion causes an altered arc of motion but preserves the total arc and does not typically result in pathological GIRD.

Question 1708

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after a primary dislocation 2 years ago. He reports 5 subsequent dislocations requiring closed reduction. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder is shown in Figure 14, demonstrating an 'inverted pear' glenoid with 27% anterior bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsular plication
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

Critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) alters the biomechanics of the glenohumeral joint, rendering soft-tissue stabilization alone (arthroscopic or open Bankart) insufficient due to unacceptably high recurrence rates. The 'inverted pear' appearance indicates significant bone loss where the inferior width is narrower than the superior width. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss, providing stability via a triple effect: a bone block, a sling effect from the conjoint tendon, and capsular repair.

Question 1709

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male collegiate hockey player complains of insidious onset, worsening deep right groin pain that is exacerbated by prolonged sitting and deep hip flexion. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19, demonstrating an abnormal alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of chondral injury in this specific morphological variant of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. Pincer impingement causing primarily posterior inferior cartilage contrecoup wear
. Shear stress at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction leading to articular cartilage delamination
. Chondral crush injury from an over-covered acetabulum (coxa profunda)
. Ligamentum teres hypertrophy causing central acetabular wear
. Ischiofemoral impingement compressing the quadratus femoris muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shear stress at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction leading to articular cartilage delamination


Explanation

An abnormal alpha angle (>50-55 degrees) signifies a Cam lesion, characterized by a lack of sphericity at the femoral head-neck junction. During hip flexion and internal rotation, this aspherical prominence is forcefully introduced into the acetabulum, causing significant shear stress at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction. This repetitive shear typically results in 'inside-out' delamination of the adjacent acetabular articular cartilage and subsequent labral detachment. In contrast, Pincer impingement (acetabular over-coverage) primarily causes labral crushing or degeneration and contrecoup chondral lesions in the posteroinferior acetabulum.

Question 1710

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old hockey player complains of insidious onset groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Anteroposterior radiographs of the pelvis reveal a lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) of 45 degrees and a positive crossover sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Femoral neck stress fracture
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is caused by focal or global overcoverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum. Radiographic findings diagnostic of pincer FAI include a lateral center-edge angle >39 degrees, acetabular retroversion (indicated by a crossover sign or ischial spine sign), or coxa profunda/protrusio acetabuli. Cam impingement is defined by a lack of femoral head-neck offset, often quantified by an alpha angle >55 degrees.

Question 1711

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female collegiate swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of joint 'looseness'. Physical examination reveals a positive sulcus sign that does not reduce with external rotation, and apprehension with both anterior and posterior translation. She has failed 6 months of supervised physical therapy. If surgical intervention is planned, what is the most appropriate procedure?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

The patient has multidirectional instability (MDI) failing conservative management, which is the gold standard initial treatment. Surgical management typically involves reducing capsular volume. Arthroscopic capsular plication (or open inferior capsular shift) is the procedure of choice. Thermal capsulorrhaphy is historical and has high failure and complication rates. Bankart or posterior repairs alone do not address the global capsular redundancy unless a specific labral tear is identified. A sulcus sign that does not reduce with external rotation indicates an incompetent rotator interval.

Question 1712

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with an insidious onset of right shoulder weakness and vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination demonstrates isolated weakness in external rotation. Internal rotation and forward elevation are 5/5. There is noticeable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa appears normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The clinical presentation of isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness indicates compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, leading to weakness in both abduction and external rotation. Paralabral cysts at the spinoglenoid notch are often associated with posterior superior labral tears.

Question 1713

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for a symptomatic CAM lesion (femoroacetabular impingement). Following the osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction, what complication is significantly increased if the resection depth exceeds 30% of the femoral neck diameter?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Anterior hip dislocation
. Femoral neck fracture
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral neck fracture


Explanation

During osteochondroplasty for a CAM lesion, resection of the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction is performed. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that resecting greater than 30% of the femoral neck diameter significantly alters the load-bearing capacity of the proximal femur, drastically increasing the risk of a post-operative femoral neck fracture.

Question 1714

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic, profound shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration.

During attempted arthroscopic mobilization and lateral traction of these chronically retracted tendons, which neurologic structure is at greatest risk of stretch injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. It is relatively fixed at the suprascapular notch and the spinoglenoid notch. In the setting of a massive, chronically retracted rotator cuff tear, the muscle belly shortens. Aggressive lateral traction during mobilization or repair places significant tension on the suprascapular nerve, increasing the risk of a traction neuropraxia.

Question 1715

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he exhibits weakness in elbow flexion and supination, along with decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is at significant risk during the Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) due to its proximity to the conjoined tendon (coracobrachialis and short head of biceps). It typically penetrates the coracobrachialis 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Injury to this nerve leads to weakness in elbow flexion (biceps, brachialis) and supination (biceps), as well as sensory loss in the distribution of the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (lateral forearm).

Question 1716

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old recreational volleyball player presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking. An MR arthrogram demonstrates a SLAP tear characterized by a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the long head of the biceps tendon. According to the Snyder classification, what type of SLAP tear is this?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

According to the Snyder classification of SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior and Posterior) tears: Type I is superior labral fraying with an intact biceps anchor. Type II is detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the superior glenoid. Type III is a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor. Type IV is a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the biceps tendon.

Question 1717

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, the patient exhibits weakness with elbow flexion and forearm supination, accompanied by numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve is most likely to have been injured during the retraction of the conjoint tendon?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is highly vulnerable during the Latarjet procedure, particularly during the mobilization and medial retraction of the conjoint tendon. It typically penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Injury to this nerve leads to denervation of the biceps brachii and brachialis (causing weakness in elbow flexion and supination) and sensory deficits in the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve distribution.

Question 1718

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old elite collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain, a 'dead arm' sensation, and a decrease in pitching velocity.

He is diagnosed with a Type II superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) tear. What biomechanical mechanism is primarily responsible for the propagation of this specific lesion during the throwing cycle?

. Internal impingement of the rotator cuff against the anterior-inferior glenoid
. The 'peel-back' mechanism of the biceps-labral complex in maximal external rotation and abduction
. Tensile failure of the long head of the biceps during the follow-through phase
. Eccentric contraction of the posterior rotator cuff during the deceleration phase
. Traction from the coracohumeral ligament during the early cocking phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The 'peel-back' mechanism of the biceps-labral complex in maximal external rotation and abduction


Explanation

Type II SLAP tears in overhead throwing athletes are primarily driven by the 'peel-back' mechanism, originally described by Burkhart and Morgan. During the late cocking phase, the arm is in a position of maximal abduction and external rotation. This shifts the vector of the biceps tendon posteriorly, generating significant torsional 'peel-back' forces at the superior labrum, causing it to detach from the superior glenoid rim.

Question 1719

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate hockey player complains of deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR test).

An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a prominent 'crossover sign.' What specific morphological abnormality is most closely associated with this radiographic finding?

. An aspherical femoral head-neck junction (Cam morphology)
. Focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (Acetabular retroversion)
. Global acetabular overcoverage (Coxa profunda)
. Decreased femoral neck-shaft angle (Coxa vara)
. Increased femoral anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (Acetabular retroversion)


Explanation

The 'crossover sign' on a properly aligned anteroposterior (AP) pelvis radiograph represents the anterior wall of the acetabulum crossing over the posterior wall before reaching the lateral sourcil. It is the hallmark radiographic indicator of acetabular retroversion, which results in focal anterior overcoverage and predisposes the patient to pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).

Question 1720

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female collegiate swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of "looseness" during her butterfly stroke. Physical examination reveals a positive Beighton score, positive sulcus signs bilaterally that do not reduce with external rotation, and apprehension with both anterior and posterior translation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Scapular stabilization and rotator cuff strengthening program
. Immobilization in external rotation for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scapular stabilization and rotator cuff strengthening program


Explanation

This patient presents with multidirectional instability (MDI) of the shoulder, characterized by generalized ligamentous laxity and a positive sulcus sign. The hallmark of initial management for MDI is a comprehensive, prolonged physical therapy program (typically 3 to 6 months) focusing on strengthening the dynamic stabilizers of the shoulder, particularly the periscapular muscles and rotator cuff. Surgical intervention (such as an open or arthroscopic capsular shift/plication) is reserved for patients who fail an extended course of rigorous nonoperative management.