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Question 1681

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals isolated fatty infiltration and atrophy of the teres minor muscle. Compression of the nerve responsible for this clinical finding most likely occurs within an anatomic space defined by which of the following sets of boundaries?

. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of humerus
. Teres minor, teres major, and long head of triceps
. Teres major, latissimus dorsi, and long head of triceps
. Subscapularis, coracobrachialis, and short head of biceps
. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of humerus


Explanation

The patient has Quadrilateral Space Syndrome, characterized by compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery. The anatomic boundaries of the quadrilateral space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral). Compression here typically results in isolated denervation and atrophy of the teres minor, as the deltoid branch of the axillary nerve may remain unaffected or symptomatic earlier.

Question 1682

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a surgical dislocation of the hip to address femoroacetabular impingement (Ganz approach), the surgeon meticulously preserves the obturator externus muscle. Preservation of this muscle directly protects which of the following vital structures that provides the primary blood supply to the native femoral head?

. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. During a surgical hip dislocation (Ganz approach), the obturator externus muscle is left intact to protect the MFCA. The artery courses posterior to the obturator externus tendon and anterior to the short external rotators (superior to the quadratus femoris and inferior to the inferior gemellus). Preserving the obturator externus physically shields the vessel from traction and direct injury.

Question 1683

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old motorcyclist presents with a traumatic brachial plexus injury after landing on his shoulder. Physical examination reveals a complete loss of active shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion. Hand and wrist functions are fully preserved, and there is no Horner syndrome. This clinical picture is most consistent with an injury to which of the following nerve roots?

. C5 and C6
. C7 only
. C8 and T1
. C5, C6, and C7
. C7, C8, and T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 and C6


Explanation

This classic presentation represents Erb's palsy, an upper trunk brachial plexus injury involving the C5 and C6 nerve roots. The deficit includes loss of function in the deltoid and supraspinatus (shoulder abduction), infraspinatus (external rotation), and biceps/brachialis (elbow flexion). The preservation of wrist and hand function (innervated by lower roots C8-T1) rules out pan-plexus or lower trunk involvement.

Question 1684

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old male recreational volleyball player complains of vague posterior right shoulder pain and progressive weakness. On physical examination, he demonstrates 5/5 strength in shoulder abduction but 3/5 strength in external rotation. MRI reveals a large paralabral cyst. Based on the physical examination findings, at which of the following anatomic locations is the nerve most likely compressed?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The correct answer is the spinoglenoid notch. The patient presents with isolated weakness of external rotation, which points to a deficit in the infraspinatus muscle. The suprascapular nerve originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and passes through the suprascapular notch, where it gives off a motor branch to the supraspinatus (responsible for shoulder abduction initiation). It then travels distally through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus (responsible for external rotation). Compression at the suprascapular notch (often due to a transverse scapular ligament cyst) typically results in weakness of both abduction and external rotation. In contrast, compression at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with SLAP tears) selectively denervates the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. The quadrilateral space transmits the axillary nerve, and its compression would present with teres minor and deltoid deficits.

Question 1685

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player has weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination shows atrophy of the infraspinatus but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. Sensation is intact. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Axillary fold

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch (e.g., from a paralabral cyst) causes isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 1686

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator interval is a clinically important anatomical space in the shoulder. What are its superior and inferior borders?

. Supraspinatus inferiorly and subscapularis superiorly
. Infraspinatus superiorly and teres minor inferiorly
. Supraspinatus superiorly and coracohumeral ligament inferiorly
. Subscapularis superiorly and long head of biceps inferiorly
. Supraspinatus superiorly and subscapularis inferiorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus inferiorly and subscapularis superiorly


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered superiorly by the anterior margin of the supraspinatus tendon and inferiorly by the superior margin of the subscapularis tendon. It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1687

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and deltoid weakness. MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. Which of the following defines the superior boundary of the anatomic space where the affected nerve is compressed?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Surgical neck of the humerus
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The axillary nerve is compressed in the quadrilateral space. Its anatomic boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).

Question 1688

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient sustains a proximal humerus fracture and later demonstrates profound weakness in shoulder abduction and diminished sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. The affected nerve traverses through a space bounded by which of the following structures?

. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of humerus
. Teres minor, teres major, short head of biceps, and humerus
. Subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, long head of triceps, and humerus
. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and glenoid
. Teres major, long head of triceps, lateral head of triceps, and humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of humerus


Explanation

The axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space, bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 1689

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old female presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. EMG reveals isolated denervation of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus function. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrangular space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment specifically at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 1690

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with isolated external rotation weakness of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical exam findings is most expected?

. Weakness in initiating shoulder abduction
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle
. Sensory deficit over the lateral deltoid
. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles
. Positive Hornblower's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch selectively denervates the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.

Question 1691

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing a surgical dislocation of the hip for a femoroacetabular impingement procedure, preservation of the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is paramount to prevent avascular necrosis. In relation to the short external rotators, where is this critical vessel consistently located?

. Anterior to the obturator externus and inferior to the piriformis
. Posterior to the obturator externus tendon and anterior to the superior gemellus
. Anterior to the superior gemellus and posterior to the obturator internus
. Deep to the quadratus femoris and superficial to the obturator externus
. Superficial to the quadratus femoris and deep to the inferior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep to the quadratus femoris and superficial to the obturator externus


Explanation

The deep branch of the MCFA consistently passes deep (anterior) to the quadratus femoris and superficial (posterior) to the obturator externus. Protecting the obturator externus and leaving the quadratus femoris intact (or performing a trochanteric flip) preserves this vascular supply.

Question 1692

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite pitcher presents with isolated wasting and severe weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. He has full strength in shoulder abduction, and external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees is intact. Entrapment of the involved nerve is most likely occurring at which of the following anatomic locations?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrangular space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at this specific notch isolates the infraspinatus, completely sparing the supraspinatus which is innervated more proximally.

Question 1693

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old bodybuilder presents with poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst compressing the contents of the quadrilateral space. Which of the following muscles acts as the superior border of this anatomic space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Lateral head of the triceps
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bordered by the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), long head of the triceps (medially), and the humeral shaft (laterally). Compression here affects the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 1694

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals a significant Cam-type morphology. In femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), where does the primary cartilage damage classically initiate in the setting of an isolated Cam lesion?

. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and labrum
. Posteroinferior acetabular cartilage
. Superior femoral head articular cartilage
. The ligamentum teres insertion site
. Medial acetabular wall cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and labrum


Explanation

Cam impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction that is forced into the acetabulum during flexion and internal rotation. This causes excessive shear forces that typically lead to characteristic anterosuperior labral tears and adjacent articular cartilage delamination on the acetabular side.

Question 1695

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old overhead worker presents with shoulder pain. MRI reveals a type II SLAP tear. After failed conservative management, surgical intervention is planned. Compared to SLAP repair, primary biceps tenodesis in this age group is associated with:

. Higher rates of postoperative stiffness
. Increased risk of recurrent superior labral tearing
. Lower rates of patient satisfaction
. Decreased reoperation rates
. Loss of shoulder external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased reoperation rates


Explanation

In patients over 40 years old, isolated SLAP repair is associated with higher rates of postoperative stiffness, continued pain, and higher reoperation rates compared to biceps tenodesis. Primary biceps tenodesis yields more predictable pain relief, functional outcomes, and lower reoperation rates in this older demographic.

Question 1696

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan is obtained to evaluate anterior glenoid bone loss.

The 'glenoid track' concept is utilized to determine the risk of an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The glenoid track width is calculated as:

. 83% of the normal glenoid width minus the width of the anterior glenoid defect
. 100% of the normal glenoid width minus the width of the anterior glenoid defect
. 83% of the normal glenoid width plus the width of the Hill-Sachs lesion
. 100% of the normal glenoid width plus the depth of the Hill-Sachs lesion
. 50% of the normal glenoid width minus the depth of the anterior glenoid defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 83% of the normal glenoid width minus the width of the anterior glenoid defect


Explanation

The glenoid track is defined as 83% of the intact glenoid width minus the width of the anterior glenoid bone defect. If the Hill-Sachs interval (the width of the Hill-Sachs lesion plus the bone bridge to the rotator cuff footprint) is greater than the glenoid track, the lesion is 'off-track' and at risk of engaging the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation.

Question 1697

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male undergoes hip arthroscopy for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) with a symptomatic CAM lesion. During the osteochondroplasty of the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction, the surgeon must be cautious to avoid injury to the primary blood supply of the femoral head. Which vessel is at greatest risk if the resection is carried too far posterosuperiorly?

. Ascending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Retinacular vessels of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retinacular vessels of the medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) gives rise to the superior retinacular vessels, which provide the primary blood supply to the femoral head. These vessels run along the posterosuperior aspect of the femoral neck. Osteochondroplasty for CAM lesions is typically performed anterolaterally; however, extending the resection excessively to the posterosuperior region places these vital retinacular vessels at risk, which could lead to avascular necrosis.

Question 1698

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain that is most severe during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation compared to his non-throwing shoulder. Which of the following describes the primary pathophysiologic mechanism for his pain?

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis tendon
. Anterosuperior labral tearing from internal rotation torque
. Undersurface fraying of the infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum from internal impingement
. Acromioclavicular joint arthrosis from repetitive loading
. Primary subacromial impingement secondary to acromial spurring

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undersurface fraying of the infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum from internal impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement is a common cause of posterior shoulder pain in overhead throwing athletes, specifically during the late cocking phase (maximum abduction and external rotation). In this position, the greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid rim, causing the undersurface of the posterior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) and the posterosuperior labrum to become pinched. The patient's glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) further exacerbates this altered kinematic pattern.

Question 1699

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man falls onto his outstretched arm while skiing and sustains an acute, traumatic isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for this injury?

. Hornblower's sign
. Positive Jobe's test
. Positive O'Brien's active compression test
. Positive Neer impingement test
. Positive Bear hug test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive Bear hug test


Explanation

The bear hug test, along with the belly-press and lift-off tests, specifically evaluate the integrity of the subscapularis tendon. The patient places their hand on their contralateral shoulder, and the examiner attempts to externally rotate the arm to break the patient's internal rotation force. Hornblower's sign evaluates the teres minor. Jobe's test (empty can) evaluates the supraspinatus. O'Brien's test evaluates the acromioclavicular joint and superior labrum. Neer's test is a general test for subacromial impingement.

Question 1700

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic, deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity. A coronal T2-weighted MRI of his right hip is shown in Figure 11.

During arthroscopic intervention for this condition, where is the most common location of concomitant articular cartilage damage expected to be found?

. Posteroinferior acetabulum
. Anteroinferior acetabulum
. Anterosuperior acetabulum
. Posteromedial femoral head
. Inferomedial femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabulum


Explanation

The patient's presentation and imaging findings are classic for Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), characterized by a reduced head-neck offset (pistol-grip deformity). During hip flexion and internal rotation, the aspherical femoral head abuts the acetabular rim. This mechanical impingement most commonly causes chondral delamination and labral tears in the anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum.