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Question 1661

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player is undergoing a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. Which of the following structures creates the 'sling effect' that provides dynamic stability in this procedure?

. Pectoralis minor
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Conjoined tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis minor


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides stability through the 'triple-blocking' effect: 1) The bone block effect from the transferred coracoid; 2) The dynamic 'sling effect' of the conjoined tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) acting as a sling across the inferior subscapularis and anterior-inferior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated; 3) Capsule repair to the stump of the coracoacromial ligament.

Question 1662

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior right shoulder pain and weakness. On physical examination, there is noticeable atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle fossa, but the bulk of the supraspinatus is normal. She demonstrates significant weakness in external rotation, while her abduction strength is fully preserved. Which of the following is the most likely anatomic location of the nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch (innervating the supraspinatus) and then continues distally through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles, causing weakness in both abduction and external rotation. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a paralabral cyst (associated with posterior labral tears) or repetitive traction in overhead athletes, affects only the terminal branch to the infraspinatus. This causes isolated external rotation weakness and isolated infraspinatus atrophy.

Question 1663

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Examination reveals a 25-degree Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) compared to the non-throwing shoulder, and positive apprehension. MRI arthrography demonstrates a posterosuperior labral tear and a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms is most directly responsible for this specific cascade of pathology?

. Primary subacromial impingement
. Internal impingement secondary to posterior capsular contracture
. Primary anterior capsular laxity
. Scapular winging secondary to long thoracic nerve palsy
. Coracohumeral ligament contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary subacromial impingement


Explanation

The clinical scenario perfectly describes internal impingement, highly prevalent in overhead throwing athletes. It is characterized by pathologic contact between the posterior-superior glenoid labrum and the articular surface of the rotator cuff during maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). This condition is heavily driven by a posterior capsular contracture, which alters glenohumeral kinematics, shifts the center of rotation posterosuperiorly, and clinically manifests as Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). This leads to 'peel-back' of the superior labrum and articular-sided cuff fraying (PASTA lesions).

Question 1664

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent, severe anterior shoulder pain. Nonoperative management, including physical therapy and injections, has failed. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Diagnostic arthroscopy confirms a detached superior labrum and an unstable biceps anchor. Based on current orthopedic literature, what is the best management strategy for this patient?

. Anatomic superior labral repair with suture anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy alone
. Arthroscopic debridement of the superior labrum alone
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anatomic superior labral repair with suture anchors


Explanation

In patients older than 35-40 years with symptomatic Type II SLAP tears, biceps tenodesis is highly recommended over SLAP repair. Studies show that SLAP repairs in this age demographic have significantly higher rates of postoperative stiffness, persistent pain, and need for revision surgery compared to primary biceps tenodesis.

Question 1665

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has had four anterior dislocations over the past season. A 3D-CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss, and MRI shows an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Open inferior capsular shift with subscapularis lengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

This patient has 'critical' anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). In high-demand contact athletes with critical bone loss, isolated soft tissue procedures (such as a Bankart repair, even with Remplissage) have an unacceptably high failure rate. The open Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid) is the gold standard for restoring stability. It works through a 'triple effect': the bone graft restores the glenoid arc, the conjoint tendon provides a dynamic sling across the anterior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated, and the capsule is repaired to the stump of the coracoacromial ligament.

Question 1666

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 27-year-old professional volleyball player presents with an insidious onset of right shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with profound weakness in external rotation, while abduction strength is completely normal. MRI of the shoulder is most likely to show a paralabral cyst in which of the following locations, and what labral pathology is typically associated with this finding?

. Suprascapular notch; associated with a superior labral tear
. Spinoglenoid notch; associated with a posterior or posterosuperior labral tear
. Quadrilateral space; associated with an anterior labral tear
. Suprascapular notch; associated with an anterior labral tear
. Spinoglenoid notch; associated with a classic Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch; associated with a superior labral tear


Explanation

Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy indicate entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, as the branches to the supraspinatus innervate that muscle more proximally. Spinoglenoid notch cysts are strongly associated with posterior or posterosuperior labral tears, which allow joint fluid to track extra-articularly and form a ganglion cyst. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would typically affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1667

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man presents with sudden, severe, non-traumatic right shoulder pain that awakened him from sleep. The severe pain persisted for 2 weeks and has now begun to rapidly subside; however, he has noticed profound weakness in overhead activities. Examination reveals significant atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Passive shoulder range of motion is full and painless. MRI of the shoulder and cervical spine are unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Massive rotator cuff tear
. Cervical radiculopathy
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Massive rotator cuff tear


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with the acute onset of severe shoulder girdle pain, often occurring at night, followed by profound weakness, muscle atrophy, and flaccidity as the intense pain subsides. It most commonly affects the long thoracic, suprascapular, or axillary nerves. The normal passive range of motion and negative MRI findings reliably rule out structural causes like a full-thickness rotator cuff tear or adhesive capsulitis.

Question 1668

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and weakness. On physical examination, he demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. He tests positive for both the lift-off and belly-press tests. An MRI demonstrates a complete, retracted tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following structures is most likely to be concomitantly injured or destabilized in this patient?

. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Axillary nerve
. Coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long head of the biceps tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis tendon provides anterior stability to the glenohumeral joint and acts as a vital medial restraint for the long head of the biceps tendon (LHBT). A complete tear of the subscapularis, especially involving the superior portion, often disrupts the biceps reflection pulley (composed of the coracohumeral ligament and superior glenohumeral ligament), leading to medial subluxation or dislocation of the LHBT. Therefore, the long head of the biceps is the structure most frequently injured or destabilized in this setting.

Question 1669

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male professional volleyball player presents with progressive right shoulder weakness and vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals visible atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. He has isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at his side. Forward elevation and abduction strength are normal. An MRI of the shoulder is most likely to show a paralabral cyst in which of the following locations?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Rotator interval
. Subcoracoid space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The patient presents with isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness, which points to suprascapular nerve compression at the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Therefore, compression at the suprascapular notch (transverse scapular ligament) would typically affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Paralabral cysts located in the spinoglenoid notch are often associated with posterior superior labral tears and predominantly compress the motor branch to the infraspinatus.

Question 1670

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain, particularly with overhead activities and internal rotation against resistance. On examination, he has tenderness over the bicipital groove and a positive Speed's test. During arthroscopy, the surgeon notes fraying of the superior labrum extending into the biceps anchor. Which structure forms the inferior border of the rotator cuff interval?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator cuff interval is a triangular space between the anterior supraspinatus and superior subscapularis tendons. Its borders are the base of the coracoid process superiorly, the supraspinatus tendon superiorly, and the subscapularis tendon inferiorly. The coracohumeral ligament and superior glenohumeral ligament form its roof and floor, respectively, bridging this interval. Therefore, the subscapularis tendon forms its inferior border. Lesions in this area are often associated with adhesive capsulitis or rotator cuff interval tears.

Question 1671

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient presents with shoulder weakness, specifically difficulty with abduction and external rotation. MRI reveals denervation changes in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Which anatomical structure is most commonly implicated in compression of the nerve supplying these muscles?

. Spinoscapular ligament
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Superior transverse scapular ligament (STSL)
. Inferior transverse scapular ligament
. Conoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoscapular ligament


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. It passes through the suprascapular notch, underneath the superior transverse scapular ligament (STSL), to innervate the supraspinatus. It then curves around the lateral border of the scapular spine (through the spinoglenoid notch) to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression most commonly occurs at the suprascapular notch due to hypertrophy or calcification of the STSL, or at the spinoglenoid notch. The other ligaments listed are not directly involved in suprascapular nerve compression.

Question 1672

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient undergoes arthroscopic shoulder repair for a superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) tear. Which structure constitutes the primary anatomical landmark for the superior labrum and provides an anchor for the long head of the biceps tendon?

. Glenoid rim
. Supraglenoid tubercle
. Coracoid process
. Infraglenoid tubercle
. Greater tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Glenoid rim


Explanation

The superior aspect of the glenoid labrum, where SLAP tears occur, is intimately associated with the origin of the long head of the biceps brachii tendon. The biceps tendon typically originates from the supraglenoid tubercle and then blends into the superior labrum. The supraglenoid tubercle is thus the primary anatomical landmark for the superior labrum and the biceps anchor. The glenoid rim is the periphery of the socket. The coracoid process is a separate bony projection. The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin for the long head of the triceps. The greater tuberosity is for rotator cuff insertions.

Question 1673

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient presents with shoulder pain and weakness, particularly with external rotation. MRI reveals a tear in the teres minor muscle. The teres minor is innervated by a branch of which nerve, as it passes through a specific anatomical space?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Upper subscapular nerve
. Lower subscapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The teres minor muscle is one of the four rotator cuff muscles and is primarily involved in external rotation and adduction of the shoulder. It is innervated by a branch of the axillary nerve. The axillary nerve also innervates the deltoid muscle and provides sensory innervation to the 'regimental badge' area. It passes through the quadrangular space along with the posterior circumflex humeral artery. The suprascapular nerve innervates supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Upper and lower subscapular nerves innervate the subscapularis and teres major respectively. Musculocutaneous nerve innervates biceps, coracobrachialis, and brachialis.

Question 1674

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male undergoes surgical hip dislocation for the treatment of severe femoroacetabular impingement. To safely dislocate the hip while preserving the primary blood supply to the femoral head, a trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. During the approach, the main branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) must be protected. This critical vessel is consistently found coursing between which two structures before it pierces the hip capsule?

. Piriformis and superior gemellus
. Obturator internus and inferior gemellus
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
. Pectineus and iliopsoas
. Gluteus medius and minimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis and superior gemellus


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It courses anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus muscle. Recognizing this anatomic relationship is critical during posterior and surgical dislocation approaches to the hip to avoid iatrogenic avascular necrosis. The tendon of the obturator externus protects the deep branch of the MFCA during surgical dislocation.

Question 1675

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal shoulder abduction strength. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. At which of the following anatomical locations is the cyst most likely situated?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The patient has isolated weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation) with sparing of the supraspinatus (abduction). The suprascapular nerve innervates both muscles but passes through two distinct notches. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (distal to the supraspinatus motor branches) results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus. Paralabral cysts associated with posterior SLAP tears frequently track to the spinoglenoid notch.

Question 1676

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. Compression of the involved nerve typically occurs within a space bounded by which of the following anatomic structures?

. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), humerus (lateral)
. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (lateral)
. Teres major (superior), lateral head of triceps (lateral), long head of triceps (medial)
. Subscapularis (anterior), supraspinatus (superior), infraspinatus (posterior)
. Coracoid (superior), pectoralis minor (anterior), upper ribs (medial)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), humerus (lateral)


Explanation

The patient is presenting with Quadrilateral Space Syndrome, causing compression of the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery. The axillary nerve innervates the teres minor and deltoid, and compression leads to teres minor atrophy (best seen on MRI) and lateral arm paresthesias. The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor (or subscapularis anteriorly), inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. The triangular space (Option B) contains the circumflex scapular artery. The triangular interval (Option C) contains the radial nerve and profunda brachii artery.

Question 1677

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the conjoined tendon is identified and retracted medially to access the subscapularis. At what average distance distal to the tip of the coracoid process does the musculocutaneous nerve penetrate the coracobrachialis muscle, placing it at risk during vigorous distal or medial retraction?

. 1 to 3 cm
. 5 to 8 cm
. 10 to 12 cm
. 12 to 15 cm
. Greater than 15 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 to 3 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle at an average distance of 5 to 8 cm (approx. 5.6 cm) distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Knowledge of this distance is critical during anterior shoulder surgery, such as the Latarjet procedure, to avoid neurapraxia or structural injury to the nerve during medial and distal retraction of the conjoined tendon.

Question 1678

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 31-year-old elite volleyball player is diagnosed with a paralabral cyst causing a compression neuropathy at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical and anatomical findings is most specifically associated with nerve entrapment at this location?

. Weakness in both shoulder abduction and external rotation
. Isolated weakness in external rotation with atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Denervation of the teres minor and deltoid muscles
. Sensory loss over the superior aspect of the shoulder joint
. The compressing structure lies superior to the transverse scapular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in both shoulder abduction and external rotation


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle and then continues distally, passing through the spinoglenoid notch (under the spinoglenoid ligament) to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch (commonly due to a posterior paralabral cyst) results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus. This presents clinically as weakness in external rotation and isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Entrapment further proximal, at the suprascapular notch, would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1679

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 31-year-old professional tennis player complains of chronic, aching posterior shoulder pain and significant weakness in external rotation. On physical examination, forward elevation and abduction strength are fully preserved (5/5). There is noticeable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa appears completely normal. MRI reveals a multiloculated paralabral cyst. In which of the following anatomic locations is the cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrangular space
. Triangular space
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve provides motor innervation to both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. It first passes through the suprascapular notch (under the superior transverse scapular ligament) to innervate the supraspinatus, and then courses through the spinoglenoid notch to reach and innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch causes weakness in both shoulder abduction (supraspinatus) and external rotation (infraspinatus). Compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy, with fully preserved abduction, which perfectly matches this patient's clinical presentation.

Question 1680

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient presents with isolated weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation, as well as numbness over the lateral deltoid, following a forceful posterior shoulder dislocation. An MRI reveals soft tissue entrapment in the quadrilateral space. Which of the following anatomical structures forms the superior boundary of the quadrilateral space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Lateral head of the triceps
. Surgical neck of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor (in the posterior view; or subscapularis anteriorly), inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. It transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery.