Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of 'slipping.' Clinical examination demonstrates a positive sulcus sign and apprehension in multiple positions. Initial management has included 6 months of supervised physical therapy focusing on periscapular strengthening, with no improvement.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 22-year-old female dancer complains of a painful, audible 'snap' in her lateral right hip when extending her hip from a flexed position. Clinical examination demonstrates a reproducible snap over the greater trochanter. An ultrasound-guided corticosteroid injection provided transient relief. What anatomical structure is most commonly implicated in this specific condition?

A 38-year-old male construction worker presents with deep anterior shoulder pain, particularly when lifting heavy objects. An MRI reveals a type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior and Posterior) tear. After failing 4 months of conservative management, he undergoes arthroscopic evaluation. Given his age and occupation, what is the most appropriate surgical management for an isolated type II SLAP tear?

A 19-year-old female collegiate gymnast presents with chronic, bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders 'sliding out of place' during routines. She denies any specific traumatic event. Physical examination reveals a 2+ sulcus sign bilaterally, positive apprehension, and positive relocation tests. If this patient fails a comprehensive 6-month physical therapy program emphasizing periscapular stabilization and proceeds to surgical intervention, what is the primary pathoanatomic target that must be addressed?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant anterior glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he has profound weakness in shoulder external rotation, but abduction initiation and elbow flexion are intact. Sensation over the lateral shoulder is normal. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is the typical mechanism in this setting?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent deep shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram demonstrates an isolated Type II superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) tear. He has failed 6 months of conservative management. According to current evidence-based guidelines, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable clinical outcomes and lowest revision rate for this patient demographic?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, reporting four dislocation events this season. A representative imaging study demonstrates an 'off-track' engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 22% anterior glenoid bone loss.

What is the most appropriate definitive management to minimize the risk of recurrence?

A 26-year-old professional hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the Dunn lateral view. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology and typical location of the primary osseous deformity?

A 32-year-old male weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a large paralabral cyst located strictly in the spinoglenoid notch, extending from a posterior superior labral tear. Based on the anatomic location of this cyst, which examination finding is most expected?

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player presents with vague, deep anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by overhead serving. Examination reveals a positive O'Brien's test and dynamic labral shear test. MRI arthrogram confirms an isolated type II SLAP tear. After 6 months of failed conservative management, surgical intervention is planned. Based on recent literature for patients in this age demographic (>40 years), which procedure is recommended to minimize postoperative stiffness and maximize the rate of return to sport?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D reconstructed CT scan reveals a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize his risk of recurrent instability?

A 24-year-old minor league baseball pitcher presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral shoulder, with normal total arc of motion.

What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?

A 26-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol grip deformity and an alpha angle of 70 degrees. This specific morphologic abnormality primarily leads to articular cartilage damage in which region of the acetabulum?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation sustained two years ago. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize his risk of recurrent instability?

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with an insidious onset of groin pain that is exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an elevated alpha angle of 68 degrees and a prominent osseous bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction. During dynamic motion, what is the primary pathomechanism of acetabular cartilage damage in this condition?

A 23-year-old male competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has experienced 4 dislocations this season. Advanced imaging demonstrates an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28% and an engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 26-year-old professional hockey player presents with chronic, deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity and an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the Dunn lateral view. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is most responsible for the articular cartilage damage in this condition?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents after another dislocation. Imaging reveals a bipolar bone loss condition with 25% glenoid bone loss and an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion. A Latarjet procedure is planned. Which of the following describes the most significant primary stabilizing mechanism of the Latarjet procedure?

A 19-year-old collegiate gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders 'slipping out' during her routines. She denies any specific traumatic event. On examination, she has 3+ sulcus signs bilaterally and positive apprehension tests that spontaneously reduce when she relaxes. Radiographs and MRI are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic, deep groin pain exacerbated by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a 'crossover sign.' This radiographic finding is most indicative of which of the following pathomorphologies?