Menu

Question 1601

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of instability. Physical exam reveals generalized ligamentous laxity, a positive sulcus sign, and apprehension with anterior, posterior, and inferior translation. She has failed 6 months of targeted physical therapy. What is the next best step in management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Arthroscopic capsular plication and shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Continued physical therapy for another 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

This patient has multidirectional instability (MDI) that has failed an extensive trial of conservative management. The appropriate surgical intervention for refractory MDI is a capsular shift to globally reduce capsular volume.

Question 1602

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old woman presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by forward elevation and internal rotation. MRI reveals a narrowed coracohumeral interval measuring 5 mm, edema in the subcoracoid space, and a partial-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subacromial impingement
. Internal impingement
. Subcoracoid impingement
. SLAP tear
. Adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial impingement


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement occurs when the coracohumeral interval is narrowed (typically <6-7 mm), trapping the subscapularis tendon. It presents with anterior pain worse with internal rotation and forward elevation, often leading to subscapularis tears.

Question 1603

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The "rotator cable" is a thick fibrous band of tissue running perpendicular to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscle fibers. Its primary function is to stress-shield which of the following adjacent structures?

. The coracohumeral ligament
. The long head of the biceps tendon
. The rotator crescent
. The subscapularis insertion
. The glenoid labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator cable acts similarly to a suspension bridge, transferring stress away from the thinner, relatively avascular distal portion of the rotator cuff insertions known as the rotator crescent. This crescent is the most common site for degenerative rotator cuff tears.

Question 1604

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a locked left shoulder in internal rotation following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. Which of the following associated lesions is most likely present?

. Classic Bankart lesion
. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)
. Impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Classic Bankart lesion


Explanation

Posterior shoulder dislocations are classically associated with seizures or electrocution and present locked in internal rotation. The impaction of the anteromedial humeral head against the posterior glenoid rim creates a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 1605

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated external rotation weakness and posterior shoulder pain. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will result in denervation of which of the following muscles?

. Supraspinatus only
. Infraspinatus only
. Both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus only


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch selectively affects the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.

Question 1606

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with his fifth anterior shoulder dislocation.

3D CT imaging reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in a contact athlete is a strong indication for a bone block procedure, such as the Latarjet. An isolated arthroscopic soft-tissue repair carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario.

Question 1607

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with pain in the posterosuperior aspect of his throwing shoulder during the late cocking phase. Examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees. What is the primary underlying pathomechanism?

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis
. Impingement of the supraspinatus against the coracoacromial arch
. Contact between the posterosuperior labrum and the articular surface of the rotator cuff
. Dynamic subluxation of the long head of the biceps
. Avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs during maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase), causing the articular surface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff to impinge against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. It is highly associated with GIRD and contracture of the posterior capsule.

Question 1608

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization for a patient with recurrent dislocations, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Which of the following procedures involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon into the humeral defect?

. Putti-Platt procedure
. Magnuson-Stack procedure
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. McLaughlin procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Putti-Platt procedure


Explanation

The arthroscopic remplissage procedure involves suturing the infraspinatus tendon and the posterior capsule into an engaging Hill-Sachs defect. This converts the intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid.

Question 1609

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man sustains a shoulder dislocation. An MR arthrogram demonstrates extravasation of contrast into the axillary pouch, obliterating the normal U-shape and creating a "J-sign". This finding is pathognomonic for which of the following lesions?

. Classic Bankart lesion
. SLAP tear
. Perthes lesion
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. GLAD lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Classic Bankart lesion


Explanation

A HAGL lesion represents an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral attachment. On MR arthrogram, contrast leaks inferiorly through the axillary recess defect, forming the characteristic J-sign.

Question 1610

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast complains of vague, bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of slipping. Examination reveals a prominent sulcus sign bilaterally, positive apprehension without a history of frank dislocation, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular stabilizers
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

This patient has Multidirectional Instability (MDI), characterized by generalized laxity and a positive sulcus sign. The first-line and mainstay of treatment is extensive physical therapy focusing on the rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizers.

Question 1611

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old construction worker fell onto an outstretched arm and now complains of anterior shoulder pain and weakness. Clinical examination demonstrates a positive Gerber's lift-off test and increased passive external rotation. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Pectoralis major tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear typically presents with weakness in internal rotation (positive lift-off or belly-press test) and an unresisted increase in passive external rotation.

Question 1612

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon places a self-retaining retractor medial to the conjoint tendon to expose the subscapularis. Excessive medial retraction in this area places which nerve at highest risk of injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the deep surface of the coracobrachialis 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Retracting the conjoint tendon too vigorously or too far medially during a Latarjet procedure risks stretching or damaging this nerve.

Question 1613

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 52-year-old laborer presents with a massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear. The subscapularis is intact, the deltoid is highly functional, and there is no evidence of glenohumeral osteoarthritis on radiographs. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears in younger, active patients without significant arthritis. An intact or repairable subscapularis and functional deltoid are prerequisites.

Question 1614

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The transverse force couple of the shoulder is crucial for maintaining the humeral head centered within the glenoid during active elevation. This force couple relies on the balanced action of which of the following muscle groups?

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid
. Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi
. Subscapularis and the Infraspinatus/Teres minor
. Trapezius and Serratus anterior
. Rhomboids and Levator scapulae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid


Explanation

The transverse force couple is composed anteriorly by the subscapularis and posteriorly by the infraspinatus and teres minor. Disruption of this balance in massive cuff tears leads to altered kinematics and dysfunction.

Question 1615

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient is evaluated for anterior shoulder pain. The examiner places the patient's arm in forward flexion, internal rotation, and cross-body adduction, which recreates the patient's sharp anterior pain. Imaging reveals a narrowed coracohumeral distance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis
. Subcoracoid impingement
. SLAP tear
. Internal impingement
. Posterior labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement occurs when the subscapularis tendon is compressed between the coracoid process and the lesser tuberosity. Provocative positioning includes forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction.

Question 1616

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old physical laborer presents with persistent deep shoulder pain. MR arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupation, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment if conservative management fails?

. Arthroscopic anatomical SLAP repair with anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression
. Open Mumford procedure
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anatomical SLAP repair with anchors


Explanation

In older patients (typically >40-50 years), arthroscopic repair of Type II SLAP tears is associated with high failure rates and postoperative stiffness. Biceps tenodesis provides superior functional outcomes and pain relief in this demographic.

Question 1617

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals an "inverted pear" glenoid with 25% anterior bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

An "inverted pear" glenoid indicates significant anterior bone loss (>20-25%). This structural deficit is a contraindication to isolated soft-tissue stabilization and requires a bone-block procedure such as a Latarjet.

Question 1618

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man sustains a traumatic forced external rotation injury to his shoulder. He demonstrates a positive belly-press test and increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI confirms an isolated, full-thickness subscapularis tendon tear. During arthroscopic repair, which of the following additional findings is most likely to be encountered?

. Medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear
. Spinoglenoid notch cyst
. Os acromiale
. Subacromial bursitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps


Explanation

The superior border of the subscapularis tendon contributes to the biceps pulley mechanism. Complete subscapularis tears are highly associated with medial subluxation or dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1619

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports



A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. This lesion most likely originated from which of the following pathologies?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterosuperior labral tear
. Subscapularis tendon tear
. SLAP type IV tear
. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart lesion


Explanation

Spinoglenoid notch cysts strongly correlate with posterosuperior labral tears. A one-way valve effect allows joint fluid to accumulate, compressing the suprascapular nerve and causing isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 1620

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a patient asks about the expected timeline for tendon-to-bone healing. Biomechanically, which type of collagen initially predominates at the healing tendon-bone interface before being remodeled into a stronger, more mature construct?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type X

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

During the initial proliferative phase of tendon-to-bone healing, fibroblasts lay down predominantly Type III collagen, which is disorganized and mechanically weaker. Over several months, this tissue remodels into stronger, highly organized Type I collagen.