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Question 1621

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female competitive swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of "looseness." Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 7/9), and no distinct history of trauma. Initial management for this condition should focus on:

. Arthroscopic plication of the rotator interval
. Arthroscopic inferior capsular shift
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Scapular stabilizer and rotator cuff strengthening
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic plication of the rotator interval


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and bilateral. The gold standard for initial management is an extended course (usually >6 months) of targeted physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening.

Question 1622

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to the nerves innervating the subscapularis muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of which cord of the brachial plexus?

. Lateral cord
. Medial cord
. Poster cord
. Anterior cord
. Superior trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral cord


Explanation

The upper and lower subscapular nerves originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. They provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle, with the lower subscapular nerve also innervating the teres major.

Question 1623

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player undergoes arthroscopy for refractory shoulder pain. A partial articular-sided tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion of the supraspinatus is identified. At what depth of tendon involvement is completion of the tear and full-thickness repair generally recommended?

. Greater than 10%
. Greater than 25%
. Greater than 50%
. Only when it extends to the bursal surface
. Only when accompanied by a SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 10%


Explanation

For partial articular-sided rotator cuff tears (PASTA lesions), surgical management principles dictate that tears involving >50% of the tendon thickness (typically >6 mm) should be completed and repaired to restore optimal biomechanical strength.

Question 1624

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following structures is NOT considered a border or content of the rotator interval in the shoulder?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the supraspinatus superiorly, the subscapularis inferiorly, and the coracoid medially. It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and long head of the biceps; the teres minor is located posteriorly.

Question 1625

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Her abduction strength is completely normal (5/5). An MRI is likely to demonstrate a paralabral ganglion cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following locations?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus (abduction) and infraspinatus.

Question 1626

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old weightlifter presents with right posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following muscles is most likely denervated?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Deltoid
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch (innervating supraspinatus) and then the spinoglenoid notch (innervating infraspinatus). A compressive lesion exclusively at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus denervation.

Question 1627

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following structures is NOT a border or content of the rotator interval?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the supraspinatus (superiorly) and subscapularis (inferiorly). It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1628

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The suprascapular nerve is at risk of entrapment at both the suprascapular notch and the spinoglenoid notch. An isolated lesion at the spinoglenoid notch will typically result in which of the following clinical findings?

. Weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation
. Isolated weakness of shoulder abduction
. Isolated weakness of shoulder external rotation
. Sensory loss over the lateral deltoid
. Scapular winging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation


Explanation

Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. The supraspinatus (abduction) is spared because its branches originate more proximally.

Question 1629

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The coracoacromial ligament is a key structure in subacromial impingement syndrome. What are its attachments?

. Acromion to the distal clavicle
. Coracoid process to the lesser tuberosity
. Coracoid process to the anterior aspect of the acromion
. Coracoid process to the greater tuberosity
. Superior glenoid to the coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromion to the distal clavicle


Explanation

The coracoacromial ligament attaches the coracoid process to the anterior undersurface of the acromion, forming the coracoacromial arch. This arch is the primary rigid roof under which the rotator cuff must pass.

Question 1630

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and normal supraspinatus strength. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve is most likely occurring at which anatomical location?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrangular space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Coracoid base

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch (proximal) would cause weakness and atrophy in both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1631

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of painless weakness in shoulder external rotation. On examination, abduction strength is 5/5, but external rotation is 3/5. At which of the following anatomical sites is the affected nerve most likely compressed?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness, whereas entrapment at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles.

Question 1632

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI confirms a mass in the quadrilateral space compressing the axillary nerve. Which muscle forms the superior border of this anatomic space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Lateral head of the triceps
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor (and subscapularis anteriorly), inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 1633

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient presents with weakness in external rotation and abduction following a posterior shoulder dislocation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing the quadrilateral space. Which of the following defines the superior border of this anatomic space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Surgical neck of the humerus
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the humeral shaft. It contains the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 1634

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Abduction strength is normal. An MRI confirms a paralabral cyst. At which of the following locations is the nerve compression most likely occurring?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus branch of the suprascapular nerve, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would also affect the supraspinatus, causing additional abduction weakness.

Question 1635

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The primary blood supply to the supraspinatus tendon is derived from branches of which of the following arteries?

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Subscapular artery
. Thoracoacromial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery


Explanation

The suprascapular artery courses superior to the transverse scapular ligament and provides the primary vascular supply to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles and their tendinous insertions.

Question 1636

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic stabilization procedure for anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon performs a rotator interval closure. Which of the following structures form the superior and inferior boundaries of this interval, respectively?

. Supraspinatus and subscapularis
. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Subscapularis and teres minor
. Coracohumeral ligament and superior glenohumeral ligament
. Long head of the biceps and subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and subscapularis


Explanation

The rotator interval is a triangular anatomic space in the anterosuperior shoulder bordered superiorly by the supraspinatus and inferiorly by the subscapularis. It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1637

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male volleyball player presents with painless weakness of his hitting arm. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI is likely to show a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following anatomic locations?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness, whereas entrapment at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles.

Question 1638

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling on his outstretched arm. Radiographs reveal an anterior shoulder dislocation and an associated greater tuberosity fracture. Following a successful closed reduction of the glenohumeral joint, repeat radiographs show the greater tuberosity fragment displaced 8 mm superiorly. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immobilization in an external rotation brace for 6 weeks
. Open or arthroscopic reduction and internal fixation of the greater tuberosity
. Early active range of motion to prevent adhesive capsulitis
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair only
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization in an external rotation brace for 6 weeks


Explanation

In the setting of an anterior shoulder dislocation, a greater tuberosity fracture that remains displaced >5 mm (or >3 mm in an active patient) after closed reduction requires surgical fixation to prevent significant subacromial impingement and loss of rotator cuff function.

Question 1639

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old competitive swimmer presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. He has failed a supervised physical therapy program. On examination, he has generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 6/9) and full external rotation with the arm abducted 90 degrees (apprehension test negative in this position). He is concerned about his long-term ability to return to swimming. Which of the following surgical interventions is MOST appropriate to recommend?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure with Bankart repair
. Inferior capsular shift alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The patient's generalized ligamentous laxity and failure of conservative management for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations suggest a need for bony augmentation, especially in a high-demand athlete. The negative apprehension test in abduction and external rotation despite recurrent dislocations is a red flag for significant bony loss (either glenoid or humeral). While Bankart repair addresses soft tissue, it has higher failure rates in patients with significant bone loss or hyperlaxity. The Latarjet procedure provides a bone block that increases the anterior-inferior glenoid articular arc, thereby augmenting the "inverted pear" glenoid deficiency and creating a conjoint tendon sling effect. This is particularly effective in cases with significant glenoid bone loss (>20%) or engaging Hill-Sachs lesions, and in hyperlax patients or those involved in high-impact overhead sports, where standard soft-tissue repairs are prone to failure. Remplissage addresses Hill-Sachs, but without addressing potential glenoid bone loss it may not be sufficient for a high-demand, hyperlax individual. Open Bankart with capsular shift is good for multidirectional instability, but recurrent anterior dislocations with hyperlaxity often benefit more from bony stabilization.

Question 1640

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old female presents with bilateral, atraumatic shoulder instability. She describes a sensation of the shoulder "slipping out" in multiple directions, often spontaneously or with minimal provocation. On examination, she exhibits a positive sulcus sign, hyperlaxity, and pain with posterior and inferior loading. She has failed a comprehensive rotator cuff and periscapular strengthening program. What is the MOST appropriate surgical intervention?

. Anterior Bankart repair
. Posterior Bankart repair
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Inferior capsular shift (open or arthroscopic)
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

The patient's presentation of atraumatic, bilateral instability with a positive sulcus sign and generalized hyperlaxity, refractory to conservative management, is characteristic of multidirectional instability (MDI). The primary pathology in MDI is capsular laxity. The goal of surgical intervention for MDI is to reduce capsular volume and tighten the capsule. An inferior capsular shift (either open or arthroscopic) is the gold standard procedure for MDI, as it effectively addresses the redundant capsule in all directions, particularly inferiorly and posteriorly, depending on the shift's direction. Isolated anterior or posterior Bankart repairs are for unidirectional instability. Thermal capsulorrhaphy has largely been abandoned due to poor long-term outcomes and potential for nerve damage and capsular necrosis. The Latarjet procedure is for anterior instability with significant glenoid bone loss.