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Question 1581

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The normal direct tendon insertion of the rotator cuff onto the greater tuberosity is divided into four distinct histological zones. Which structure marks the boundary between uncalcified fibrocartilage and calcified fibrocartilage?

. Sharpey's fibers
. Tidemark
. Cement line
. Crimson crescent
. Zone of parallel collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sharpey's fibers


Explanation

At the rotator cuff enthesis, the tidemark represents the distinct histological boundary separating the uncalcified fibrocartilage zone from the calcified fibrocartilage zone.

Question 1582

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain that worsens with cross-body adduction and internal rotation. Examination demonstrates focal tenderness over the coracoid process. MRI reveals a narrowed coracohumeral interval of 4 mm and edema in the lesser tuberosity. Which tendon is most at risk of attritional tearing in this syndrome?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Long head of the biceps
. Subscapularis
. Teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes subcoracoid impingement syndrome, where a narrowed coracohumeral interval leads to entrapment and potential attritional tearing of the subscapularis tendon.

Question 1583

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 75-year-old woman has advanced rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion (acetabularization).

What biomechanical alteration is the primary driver of this superior head migration?

. Contracture of the coracoacromial ligament
. Unopposed superior pull of the deltoid muscle
. Hypertrophy of the long head of the biceps
. Loss of the suspensory mechanism of the clavicle
. Inferior capsular contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

In the presence of a massive rotator cuff tear, the normal inferiorly directed compressive force of the cuff is lost. This leaves the superior pull of the deltoid unopposed, resulting in superior migration of the humeral head.

Question 1584

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open repair of a massive, chronically retracted rotator cuff tear, the surgeon performs aggressive lateral mobilization of the supraspinatus tendon. Postoperatively, the patient is noted to have a new, isolated profound weakness in external rotation, with intact forward elevation. Injury to which structure most likely occurred during mobilization?

. Axillary nerve at the quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch
. Suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve at the quadrilateral space


Explanation

Excessive traction during mobilization of the rotator cuff can stretch the suprascapular nerve. An injury specifically at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branches to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness.

Question 1585

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure
. Superior capsule reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard for high-demand contact athletes with recurrent anterior instability and >20% anterior glenoid bone loss. Soft tissue Bankart repairs have an unacceptably high failure rate in the presence of critical bone loss.

Question 1586

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with chronic, deep shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior and Posterior) tear. Conservative management has failed. Which of the following surgical interventions is associated with the most reliable return to work and pain relief in this patient demographic?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labrum
. Open Bankart repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair


Explanation

In patients over 40 years old, particularly manual laborers, biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and functional outcomes compared to SLAP repair, which has a higher rate of postoperative stiffness and failure in this age group.

Question 1587

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man is incidentally found to have an asymptomatic, 1.5 cm full-thickness supraspinatus tear on an MRI obtained for a suspected neck issue. He has full range of motion and 5/5 strength. What is the most accurate information regarding the natural history of his rotator cuff tear?

. The tear will spontaneously heal in 50% of cases.
. The tear will likely remain asymptomatic and stable in size for his lifetime.
. Approximately 50% of asymptomatic tears will enlarge and become symptomatic within 2 to 3 years.
. Immediate surgical repair is indicated to prevent irreversible muscle atrophy.
. Physical therapy will decrease the physical size of the tear over time.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The tear will spontaneously heal in 50% of cases.


Explanation

Studies on the natural history of asymptomatic rotator cuff tears show that roughly 50% will enlarge and become symptomatic within 2 to 3 years. Clinical observation is appropriate initially, but patients should be warned about the potential for progression.

Question 1588

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Iliac crest bone grafting to the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In the setting of significant anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), soft tissue stabilization alone has a prohibitively high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet, is the standard of care to restore joint stability.

Question 1589

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old woman is evaluated for right shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. On examination, she has increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. The "belly-press" test is positive, but the "lift-off" test is negative. Which of the following statements best describes her pathology?

. Isolated teres minor tear
. Tear involving the lower half of the subscapularis
. Tear involving the upper half of the subscapularis
. Massive rotator cuff tear involving the infraspinatus
. Isolated supraspinatus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated teres minor tear


Explanation

The subscapularis tendon is tested via the belly-press (upper half) and lift-off (lower half) tests. A positive belly-press with a normal lift-off indicates an isolated upper subscapularis tear. Increased passive external rotation is also a classic hallmark of subscapularis deficiency.

Question 1590

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 45% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction and subscapularis transfer into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Open reduction and lesser tuberosity transfer (modified McLaughlin)
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica casting


Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving >40-45% of the articular surface, joint preservation techniques (like the modified McLaughlin) are generally insufficient due to a lack of stable articular cartilage. Hemiarthroplasty or total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated.

Question 1591

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 17-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of the shoulders "sliding out of place." Examination shows a positive sulcus sign bilaterally, positive apprehension, and generalized ligamentous laxity. There is no history of a discrete traumatic dislocation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic plication of the rotator interval
. A dedicated 6-month physical therapy program focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is primarily treated non-operatively with a prolonged, dedicated physical therapy program emphasizing dynamic stabilizers. Surgery is considered only after at least 6 months of failed comprehensive rehabilitation.

Question 1592

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the conjoined tendon is retracted medially to expose the subscapularis. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of injury with overly aggressive medial retraction of the conjoined tendon?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 3-8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Aggressive medial retraction of the conjoined tendon during the Latarjet procedure places this nerve at high risk for a traction injury.

Question 1593

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and noticeable atrophy over the scapula. On examination, she has 5/5 strength in forward elevation but isolated 3/5 strength in external rotation with the arm at the side. What is the most likely pathological finding on MRI?

. A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch
. A paralabral cyst in the suprascapular notch
. An isolated teres minor tear
. A massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (often from a posterior labral cyst) causes isolated infraspinatus weakness, sparing the supraspinatus.

Question 1594

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D-CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

For anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25%, a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet is indicated to restore glenohumeral stability. Soft tissue repairs (Bankart) have an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of critical bone loss.

Question 1595

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and presents with weakness in internal rotation and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most commonly injured concomitantly with the suspected tendon tear?

. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long head of the biceps tendon


Explanation

A positive belly-press test indicates a subscapularis tear. The subscapularis insertion is intimately associated with the biceps pulley, making long head of the biceps tendon subluxation or tearing the most common concomitant injury.

Question 1596

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department locked in internal rotation after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Radiographs confirm a posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation
. Open reduction and subscapularis transfer (McLaughlin procedure)
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation


Explanation

Posterior dislocations often result from seizures or electrocution. For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, transferring the subscapularis tendon (or lesser tuberosity) into the defect (McLaughlin procedure) prevents engagement and recurrent instability.

Question 1597

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with painless, isolated weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

Isolated external rotation weakness indicates isolated infraspinatus denervation, typically caused by suprascapular nerve compression at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1598

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of a patient with a massive rotator cuff tear, which of the following factors on preoperative MRI is the strongest independent predictor of structural failure following surgical repair?

. Acromiohumeral distance of 8 mm
. Tear retraction to the level of the humeral head
. Goutallier stage 3 or 4 fatty infiltration of the muscle belly
. Presence of a subacromial spur
. Fluid in the subdeltoid bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromiohumeral distance of 8 mm


Explanation

Advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 3 or 4) and muscle atrophy are irreversible and strongly predict a high rate of structural failure and poor functional outcomes after rotator cuff repair.

Question 1599

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability has a glenoid track evaluated on CT. He has 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large Hill-Sachs lesion that extends outside the glenoid track. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Open capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim, leading to recurrent instability if treated with an isolated Bankart repair. Since the glenoid bone loss is subcritical (<20%), adding an arthroscopic remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) is indicated.

Question 1600

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI arthrogram shows no labral tear, but reveals contrast extravasation into the axillary pouch and the normal U-shape of the axillary recess is lost, appearing as a J-shape. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion presents with recurrent instability without a labral tear. On MRI arthrogram, the contrast leaking through the avulsed inferior glenohumeral ligament creates the characteristic "J-sign".