Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a seizure with his left arm locked in internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. A subsequent CT scan demonstrates an anteromedial humeral head impression defect involving 45% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes preoperative imaging, which reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability and prevent recurrence?

A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals a 30 percent anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures provides the lowest rate of recurrent instability for this patient?

A 22-year-old professional rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to restore stability?

A 24-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss.

What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 45-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain and restricted external rotation following a grand mal seizure. Radiographs confirm a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 32-year-old competitive volleyball player reports vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Examination shows isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus. MRI reveals a multiloculated cystic structure at the spinoglenoid notch.

What associated intra-articular pathology is most likely present?

A 75-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 40 degrees. Passive range of motion is full. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. MRI confirms a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. His deltoid is functional. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 22-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has had 5 dislocations over the past two seasons. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness following a fall while water skiing. On physical examination, he has full passive range of motion. When the patient places the palm of his hand on his opposite shoulder, he is unable to resist the examiner pulling the hand away anteriorly. Which tendon is most likely injured?

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Examination shows isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa with normal supraspinatus bulk. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?

A 24-year-old rock climber undergoes diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The surgeon identifies a deep, engaging posterolateral humeral head defect. To prevent this lesion from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation, the surgeon performs a Remplissage. Which structure is tenodesed into the humeral defect?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. An MRI arthrogram reveals an articular-sided partial-thickness supraspinatus tendon tear measuring 7 mm in depth (approximately 60% of the tendon thickness). What is the recommended surgical management?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltration. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact, and there is no glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan indicates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss.

What is the most appropriate management?

A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT scan confirms a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the anterior articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 62-year-old male presents with weakness in internal rotation. On physical exam, he is instructed to place his hand on his contralateral shoulder and resist the examiner's attempt to pull the hand away. Which specific structure is being isolated and tested?

A 45-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall with his arm externally rotated. He has a positive bear-hug test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 35-year-old man presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs show a "lightbulb" sign on the AP view. What is the most common associated bony defect?