Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

During an arthroscopic evaluation of a 25-year-old with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the anatomic neck of the humerus.

What is this lesion called?

A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and profound isolated weakness in external rotation. Atrophy is noted in the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa is normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve entrapment?

The rotator interval is a triangular space in the anterosuperior shoulder. Which of the following structures is anatomically located within the rotator interval?

A 26-year-old patient with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations is found to have an "engaging" Hill-Sachs lesion during diagnostic arthroscopy. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to combine with an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a positive Jobe relocation test and glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD).

What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism?

Which type of Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear is characterized by a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum with the biceps anchor remaining solidly attached to the glenoid?

A 20-year-old male collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures provides the most reliable long-term stability for this patient?

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with his arm locked in internal rotation following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. An axillary radiograph confirms a posterior shoulder dislocation with an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals an intact anterior labrum but a complete avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral attachment, presenting as a 'J-sign'. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 25-degree Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. This condition is primarily driven by contracture of which of the following structures?

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. The supraspinatus exhibits normal strength. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at which of the following locations best explains these findings?

A 55-year-old male falls forward on his outstretched arm. He presents with shoulder pain, a positive lift-off test, and a positive bear-hug test. Passive external rotation is increased compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 24-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes arthroscopy. He is found to have an anterior Bankart lesion and a large Hill-Sachs defect that engages the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation. Glenoid bone loss is estimated at 10%. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher is diagnosed with a Type II SLAP tear after failing nonoperative management. What is the primary biomechanical mechanism responsible for this specific labral pathology in overhead throwers?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function, active forward elevation to 130 degrees, but a severe lag sign in external rotation. Radiographs show no glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. This finding is most commonly associated with which of the following concomitant pathologies?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Imaging demonstrates an off-track engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate arthroscopic surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness with internal rotation. On examination, the examiner elevates the patient's arm to 90 degrees in the scapular plane, flexes the elbow to 90 degrees, and asks the patient to internally rotate against resistance. The patient is unable to maintain the hand against his opposite shoulder. Which structure is most likely injured?

Which of the following preoperative factors has been most strongly correlated with structural failure (non-healing) following arthroscopic repair of a large rotator cuff tear?