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Question 1441

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player suffers from recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative 3D CT scan demonstrates 28 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Proximal humerus derotational osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20 to 25 percent creates an inverted pear glenoid, resulting in a high failure rate for isolated soft-tissue Bankart repairs. A Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard for restoring bony stability in these patients.

Question 1442

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of posterior shoulder pain when spiking the ball. Examination reveals a positive apprehension test and a relocation test that relieves her posterior shoulder pain. She demonstrates GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit). What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior instability
. Internal impingement
. Subacromial impingement
. Posterior shoulder instability
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior instability


Explanation

Internal impingement is characterized by posterior shoulder pain during late cocking (abduction and external rotation) due to the undersurface of the cuff impinging on the posterosuperior labrum. The relocation test typically relieves this posterior pain.

Question 1443

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player suffers from recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which surgical stabilization procedure is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Open capsular shift
. Isolated arthroscopic remplissage
. Subscapularis tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

In cases of recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft tissue repairs have unacceptably high failure rates. A bony augmentation such as the Latarjet procedure is required.

Question 1444

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. He undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following structures primarily creates the dynamic "sling effect" that stabilizes the anterior shoulder postoperatively?

. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Long head of the biceps and pectoralis minor
. Pectoralis major and subscapularis
. Conjoint tendon and subscapularis
. Coracoacromial ligament and short head of biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a triple effect: the osseous block, the capsule-coracoacromial ligament repair, and the dynamic "sling effect" of the conjoint tendon passing through the split lower subscapularis muscle when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

Question 1445

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports



A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a prominent bump at the anterolateral head-neck junction. What radiographic measurement is most appropriate to quantify this deformity?

. Center-edge angle
. Alpha angle
. Tonnis angle
. Crossover sign
. Posterior wall sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Center-edge angle


Explanation

The patient has Cam-type FAI. The alpha angle on a lateral or Dunn view is the standard measurement to quantify the loss of femoral head-neck offset, with >50-55 degrees considered abnormal.

Question 1446

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old female presents with activity-related hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate a "crossover sign" on the AP pelvis view. This finding is indicative of which of the following?

. Coxa profunda
. Cam impingement
. Acetabular retroversion
. Anterior inferior iliac spine impingement
. Femoral retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coxa profunda


Explanation

The crossover sign occurs when the anterior wall of the acetabulum crosses the posterior wall on an AP radiograph. This indicates acetabular retroversion, a common cause of focal Pincer-type FAI.

Question 1447

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During physical examination of a patient suspected of having Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI), the examiner performs the FADIR test. Which of the following motions are combined during this provocative maneuver?

. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation
. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation
. Extension, Abduction, External Rotation
. Extension, Adduction, Internal Rotation
. Flexion, Adduction, External Rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation


Explanation

The anterior impingement test (FADIR) combines Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation. It is highly sensitive for detecting anterior labral tears and evaluating FAI.

Question 1448

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating an AP pelvis radiograph for femoroacetabular impingement, which of the following findings is most specific for focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (pincer impingement)?

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees
. Increased femoral neck-shaft angle
. Crossover sign
. Pistol grip deformity
. Coxa profunda

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees


Explanation

The crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph indicates cranial acetabular retroversion, leading to focal anterior overcoverage typical of pincer impingement. An alpha angle >55 degrees indicates cam impingement.

Question 1449

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During surgical dislocation of the hip for treatment of FAI and a labral tear, the trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. To preserve the blood supply to the femoral head, the osteotomy must stay superficial to which of the following structures?

. Piriformis fossa
. Lesser trochanter
. Quadratus femoris muscle
. Medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)
. Obturator externus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis fossa


Explanation

A trochanteric flip osteotomy leaves the external rotators intact to protect the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The osteotomy must be kept superficial to the quadratus femoris muscle to avoid injuring the ascending branch of the MFCA.

Question 1450

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male with symptomatic FAI and a labral tear undergoes hip arthroscopy with femoroplasty, acetabuloplasty, and labral repair. Which of the following preoperative factors is the strongest predictor of failure and eventual conversion to THA?

. Presence of a cam lesion with an alpha angle > 65 degrees
. Tönnis grade 2 or greater osteoarthritis
. Age greater than 30 years
. Pincer impingement with a crossover sign
. Male sex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a cam lesion with an alpha angle > 65 degrees


Explanation

Pre-existing osteoarthritis (Tönnis grade 2 or higher) or joint space narrowing (< 2 mm) is the strongest negative prognostic factor for joint preservation surgery in FAI. This frequently leads to early conversion to THA.

Question 1451

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient for suspected cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), measurement of the alpha angle is most accurately assessed using which of the following radiographic views?

. Standard Anteroposterior (AP) pelvis
. False profile view
. Dunn view (modified axial)
. Judet obturator oblique
. Inlet view of the pelvis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standard Anteroposterior (AP) pelvis


Explanation

The alpha angle is used to quantify the loss of femoral head sphericity seen in cam-type FAI. It is best evaluated on an axial or modified axial view of the proximal femur, such as the Dunn view or a cross-table lateral radiograph.

Question 1452

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a safe surgical dislocation of the hip (Ganz approach) for the treatment of femoroacetabular impingement, a trochanteric flip osteotomy is performed. This technique is specifically designed to protect which critical vascular structure?

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Obturator artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The safe surgical dislocation of the hip utilizes a trochanteric flip osteotomy leaving the external rotators intact to the proximal femur. This protects the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), preventing avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 1453

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the pathophysiology of cam-type femoroacetabular impingement, the aspherical portion of the femoral head engages the acetabulum during hip flexion and internal rotation. Where does the resulting chondral delamination characteristically occur?

. Posteroinferior acetabulum
. Anterosuperior acetabulum
. Ligamentum teres
. Medial femoral head
. Central acetabular fossa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteroinferior acetabulum


Explanation

Cam impingement causes shear stress as the non-spherical femoral head enters the joint during flexion, leading to classic inside-out chondral delamination and labral tears primarily in the anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum.

Question 1454

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following radiographic findings on an AP pelvis is most characteristic of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement caused by acetabular retroversion?

. Pistol grip deformity
. Alpha angle greater than 55 degrees
. Crossover sign
. Decreased center-edge angle
. Coxa valga

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pistol grip deformity


Explanation

The crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph indicates cranial acetabular retroversion, a common cause of Pincer morphology. It occurs when the anterior rim line crosses the posterior rim line.

Question 1455

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with insidious onset of deep groin pain, exacerbated by deep squatting and prolonged sitting. Radiographs demonstrate a prominent osseous bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers is most likely to be positive in this patient?

. Flexion, Abduction, and External Rotation (FABER) test
. Ober test
. Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation (FADIR) test
. Stinchfield test
. Ely test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion, Abduction, and External Rotation (FABER) test


Explanation

The patient's presentation and radiographs are classic for Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). The FADIR test is highly sensitive for assessing anterior impingement and labral pathology, consistently reproducing groin pain in these patients.

Question 1456

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An anteroposterior (AP) pelvis radiograph is performed to evaluate a 30-year-old female with chronic groin pain. The radiograph demonstrates a "crossover sign" and an "ischial spine sign". Which of the following underlying pathomorphologies is most strongly associated with these radiographic findings?

. Cam impingement
. Acetabular retroversion
. Coxa profunda
. Protrusio acetabuli
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam impingement


Explanation

The crossover sign (where the anterior acetabular wall crosses the posterior wall line) and the ischial spine sign (projection of the ischial spine into the pelvic basin on an AP view) indicate focal acetabular retroversion. This morphology leads to anterior overcoverage and is a primary cause of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement.

Question 1457

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by prolonged sitting and pivoting. Examination reveals pain with hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR). Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely primary pathology?

. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
. Iliopsoas tendinitis
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

An alpha angle greater than 55 degrees indicates asphericity of the femoral head-neck junction, characteristic of cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). This mechanically limits flexion and internal rotation, causing pain and labral pathology.

Question 1458

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'crossover sign' and prominent ischial spine.

These radiographic findings are most characteristic of which of the following conditions?

. Cam impingement
. Pincer impingement secondary to acetabular retroversion
. Pincer impingement secondary to coxa profunda
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
. Ischiofemoral impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam impingement


Explanation

The 'crossover sign' and a prominent ischial spine are classic radiographic indicators of focal cranial acetabular retroversion. This structural abnormality leads to anterior overcoverage and secondary pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).

Question 1459

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is primarily a disorder of the proximal femur that leads to progressive chondrolabral damage. It is most commonly characterized by which of the following radiographic findings?

. Coxa profunda
. Acetabular retroversion
. Decreased femoral head-neck offset
. Protrusio acetabuli
. Increased lateral center-edge angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coxa profunda


Explanation

Cam impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head with decreased head-neck offset (often evaluated by an increased alpha angle). Pincer impingement, conversely, is characterized by focal or global acetabular overcoverage, such as retroversion or coxa profunda.

Question 1460

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old woman presents with an anterior shoulder dislocation and an associated greater tuberosity fracture. Following closed reduction, radiographs reveal that the greater tuberosity fragment is displaced superiorly by 8 mm. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Sling immobilization for 3 weeks followed by physical therapy
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the greater tuberosity
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization for 3 weeks followed by physical therapy


Explanation

In greater tuberosity fractures associated with shoulder dislocations, displacement greater than 5 mm increases the risk of subacromial impingement and altered rotator cuff mechanics. Surgical fixation is highly recommended for functional recovery.