Menu

Question 1421

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with an intact subscapularis, severe pseudoparalysis, and Hamada Grade 2 changes. Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is considered. Which structure provides the biomechanical basis for this procedure by keeping the humeral head reduced?

. Coracoacromial ligament
. Biceps tendon
. Superior capsule
. Deltoid fascia
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

The superior capsule is a critical static stabilizer of the glenohumeral joint. SCR utilizes a graft to replace the deficient superior capsule, preventing superior migration of the humeral head and restoring the fulcrum for the deltoid.

Question 1422

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female swimmer complains of bilateral shoulder pain and sensations of instability. Physical examination demonstrates generalized ligamentous laxity, positive sulcus sign, and apprehension in multiple planes. After 6 months of dedicated physical therapy, her symptoms persist. What is the surgical procedure of choice?

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Open anterior capsular shift and Latarjet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) failing conservative therapy is treated with an inferior capsular shift or arthroscopic capsular plication. Thermal capsulorrhaphy is obsolete due to high failure rates and chondrolysis.

Question 1423

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 23-year-old minor league baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) and posterosuperior labral fraying. This pathology is primarily driven by:

. Anterior capsular contracture
. Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)
. Acromial spurring
. Biceps anchor instability
. Scapular winging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior capsular contracture


Explanation

Internal impingement in throwers is caused by repetitive abutment of the posterosuperior cuff against the posterior labrum during extreme abduction and external rotation. It is strongly associated with GIRD and a tight posterior capsule.

Question 1424

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals 30% anterior glenoid bone loss.

The most appropriate definitive surgical management is:

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Arthroscopic capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for anterior shoulder instability associated with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). Soft tissue stabilization alone, such as a Bankart repair, carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 1425

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with a loss of throwing velocity and vague late-cocking phase shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the non-throwing shoulder. The primary pathophysiologic cause of this glenohumeral internal rotation deficit is:

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
. Anterosuperior capsule laxity
. Rotator interval contracture
. Coracohumeral ligament tightness
. Pectoralis minor tightness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is primarily driven by repetitive microtrauma leading to contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. It is a key contributor to internal impingement and superior labral pathology.

Question 1426

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders 'slipping' during routines. Physical exam reveals a positive sulcus sign, positive apprehension tests with spontaneous relocation, and generalized ligamentous laxity. First-line management should focus on a rehabilitation program emphasizing strengthening of which of the following muscle groups?

. Pectoralis major and minor
. Rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizers
. Deltoid and biceps brachii
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major
. Coracobrachialis and short head of biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major and minor


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is characterized by symptomatic generalized capsular laxity. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged physical therapy program focusing on the dynamic stabilizers, specifically the rotator cuff and periscapular muscles.

Question 1427

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Electromyography (EMG) shows denervation changes specifically isolated to the infraspinatus. Traction neuropathy of which nerve is most likely responsible for this finding?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

Massive retracted tears of the posterosuperior rotator cuff alter the pull of the remaining muscles, potentially causing traction on the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. This classically results in denervation and isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus.

Question 1428

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old elite javelin thrower complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopy is performed for suspected internal impingement. Which of the following combined pathological findings is the hallmark of internal impingement of the shoulder?

. Anterior Bankart lesion and Hill-Sachs defect
. Bursal-sided rotator cuff tear and subacromial spurring
. Articular-sided posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and posterosuperior labral (SLAP) tear
. Subscapularis tear and biceps subluxation
. Posterior labral tear and reverse Hill-Sachs defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart lesion and Hill-Sachs defect


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs when the greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid during maximum abduction and external rotation. This pinches the rotator cuff, leading to articular-sided, posterosuperior cuff fraying or tearing, along with associated posterosuperior labral (SLAP) pathology.

Question 1429

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure is indicated for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). Soft tissue stabilization alone in this setting carries an unacceptably high recurrence rate.

Question 1430

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In patients with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons, traction neuropathy of the suprascapular nerve is most likely to occur at which of the following anatomic locations?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Massive, retracted tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus alter the normal medial-lateral excursion of the suprascapular nerve. The tethering effect most commonly causes traction neuropathy at the suprascapular notch due to the fixed transverse scapular ligament.

Question 1431

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate football player sustains a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation.

What is the single most important risk factor for recurrent instability in this patient if treated nonoperatively?

. Size of the Hill-Sachs defect
. Patient age at the time of injury
. Arm dominance
. Player position
. Size of the Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size of the Hill-Sachs defect


Explanation

Patient age at the time of the initial dislocation is the most significant predictor of recurrence. Patients under 20 years old have recurrence rates approaching 80-90% with conservative management.

Question 1432

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male volleyball player reports vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness with external rotation.

MRI demonstrates a large paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is primarily affected by this lesion?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The spinoglenoid notch transmits the suprascapular nerve after it has already supplied motor branches to the supraspinatus. Compression at this specific location causes isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus.

Question 1433

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a positive peel-back sign and increased external rotation with a deficit in internal rotation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Classic anterior instability
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Internal impingement with a type II SLAP tear
. Subacromial impingement
. Isolated subscapularis tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Classic anterior instability


Explanation

Pain in the late cocking phase with increased external rotation and a positive peel-back sign is classic for internal impingement. This condition is often associated with a type II SLAP tear due to the greater tuberosity abutting the posterosuperior glenoid.

Question 1434

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate hockey player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Preoperative evaluation determines an Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) of 8. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize his risk of recurrence?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Open Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Arthroscopic superior labrum anterior-to-posterior (SLAP) repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

The Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) identifies patients at high risk for recurrent instability after arthroscopic Bankart repair. A score >6 is an indication for a bone-block procedure, such as the Latarjet, to ensure adequate stability in high-risk contact athletes.

Question 1435

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism contributing to this condition?

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Laxity of the anterior capsule
. Tear of the superior labrum
. Primary impingement of the rotator cuff against the acromion
. Weakness of the subscapularis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

GIRD in throwing athletes is primarily caused by contracture of the posterior capsule, specifically the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). This alters glenohumeral kinematics, leading to superior and posterior translation of the humeral head during throwing and resulting in internal impingement.

Question 1436

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. On examination, he has a positive "bear-hug" test and increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The bear-hug test, belly-press test, and lift-off test evaluate the subscapularis tendon. Increased passive external rotation is a classic finding of a full-thickness subscapularis tear due to the loss of the anterior restraint.

Question 1437

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the non-throwing shoulder. Which of the following is the primary pathoanatomy responsible for this clinical presentation?

. Contracture of the anterosuperior capsule
. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
. Attenuation of the coracohumeral ligament
. Partial articular-sided subscapularis tear
. Subcoracoid impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the anterosuperior capsule


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is primarily driven by contracture of the posteroinferior capsule. This tightness alters glenohumeral kinematics, leading to a posterosuperior shift of the humeral head during the throwing motion.

Question 1438

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and a 25% anterior glenoid bone defect.

What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair (Bankart)
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Coracoid transfer procedure (Latarjet)
. Open capsular shift
. Subscapularis advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair (Bankart)


Explanation

In the setting of critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%) and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has unacceptably high failure rates. A bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet is the gold standard.

Question 1439

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve. At what anatomic location is this cyst most likely situated?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1440

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain strictly during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 20-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the most likely pathomechanism of his pain?

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis
. Primary outlet impingement under the acromion
. Contact between the articular surface of the rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid
. Anterior capsular contracture causing posterior humeral head translation
. Scapular winging secondary to a long thoracic nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis


Explanation

Internal impingement in overhead throwers involves pathological contact between the articular side of the posterior rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. This occurs in the late cocking phase due to excessive external rotation and anterior capsular laxity coupled with posterior capsular contracture.