Practice Set 71 of 142
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Which of the following structures is NOT a border or content of the rotator interval?
. Coracohumeral ligament
Which of the following structures form the borders of the quadrilateral space in the shoulder?
. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, humerus
The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and then the spinoglenoid notch. At the spinoglenoid notch, it is accompanied by which blood vessel?
. Suprascapular artery
A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is predominantly denervated?
. Supraspinatus
A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation, with preserved abduction. At what anatomical site is the injured nerve most likely compressed?
. Quadrilateral space
. Type III (hooked)
A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
A 22-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Preoperative CT imaging reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsulorrhaphy
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
A 20-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After closed reduction, CT scan demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
A 24-year-old gymnast presents with a painful shoulder. Examination demonstrates generalized ligamentous laxity, positive sulcus sign, and apprehension with anterior and posterior translation. She has failed 6 months of physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for her multidirectional instability?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
A 30-year-old baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, while external rotation is increased. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Subacromial impingement
A 20-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?
. Axillary nerve
A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shoulder pain after a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in adduction and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 20% of the articular surface. What is this defect termed?
. Bankart lesion
A 35-year-old man presents with a locked shoulder after a generalized seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anterior humeral head defect involving 25% of the articular surface as shown in Figure 1.
What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders "slipping" out of joint. Examination reveals positive sulcus signs bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 7/9). Initial management should consist of:
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
A 22-year-old football player sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation.
Advanced imaging demonstrates an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and anterior glenoid bone loss of 28%. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrence?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with superior labral repair
A 48-year-old ski instructor dislocates his nondominant shoulder in a fall. Management consisting of application of a sling for 1 week results in improvement in his pain. Follow-up examination 6 weeks after the injury reveals that the patient continues to have difficulty with shoulder elevation. Management should now include
. use of the sling for an additional 3 weeks.
A 21-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan
reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
A 55-year-old man presents with an inability to actively internally rotate his arm. Physical examination reveals a positive belly-press test and increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the subscapularis. During repair, which anatomic landmark reliably helps locate the retracted tendon?
. Biceps tendon