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Question 1241

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old man presents with severe left shoulder pain and the arm locked in internal rotation after experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. An AP radiograph demonstrates a symmetric "lightbulb" appearance of the humeral head. What is the expected associated humeral head bone defect?

. Hill-Sachs lesion on the posterolateral aspect
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion on the anteromedial aspect
. Bankart lesion on the anterior glenoid
. Bony Bankart on the posterior glenoid
. SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hill-Sachs lesion on the posterolateral aspect


Explanation

Seizures or electrical shocks classically cause posterior shoulder dislocations, locked in internal rotation. This frequently results in an impaction fracture on the anteromedial humeral head, known as a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 1242

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterolateral shoulder pain and isolated, visible atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. MRI reveals a large paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely anatomic location of the nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, often by a paralabral cyst secondary to a posterior labral tear, results in isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1243

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old patient suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, the patient demonstrates profound weakness in abduction and external rotation. Electromyography confirms axillary nerve neurapraxia. Which additional injury typically completes the "terrible triad of the shoulder" in this age group?

. Subscapularis tear
. Rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus/infraspinatus)
. Proximal humerus fracture
. Coracoid fracture
. Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tear


Explanation

The "terrible triad of the shoulder" in older patients is defined as an anterior shoulder dislocation, an axillary nerve injury, and a concurrent rotator cuff tear. Early identification of the cuff tear is critical for restoring function.

Question 1244

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man falls while skiing and presents with weakness in internal rotation. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. Injury leads to weakness in internal rotation, positive belly-press and lift-off tests, and an increase in passive external rotation due to the loss of anterior soft-tissue restraint.

Question 1245

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When comparing double-row to single-row rotator cuff repair techniques, biomechanical studies consistently demonstrate that double-row constructs provide which of the following?

. Decreased pressurized footprint area
. Increased gap formation at the tendon-bone interface
. Superior ultimate load to failure
. Lower contact pressure over the footprint
. Decreased rate of retear in small tears

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased pressurized footprint area


Explanation

Biomechanical studies show that double-row repairs have superior ultimate load to failure, increased footprint contact area, and decreased gap formation compared to single-row repairs. However, this biomechanical superiority has not consistently translated to better clinical outcomes for small to medium tears.

Question 1246

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man has a locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago. A CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 40% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open reduction and lesser tuberosity transfer
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

For a chronic locked posterior dislocation with a large reverse Hill-Sachs defect (typically 25-45% of the articular surface), a modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves open reduction and transferring the lesser tuberosity (with the subscapularis tendon) into the anteromedial defect to provide stability.

Question 1247

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old athlete has recurrent anterior shoulder instability despite a prior arthroscopic Bankart repair. An MRI arthrogram reveals extravasation of contrast extending inferiorly in the axillary pouch into the anatomic neck of the humerus forming a "J-sign". What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. SLAP tear
. GLAD lesion
. Bony Bankart
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion occurs when the inferior glenohumeral ligament is avulsed from its humeral insertion. The characteristic MRI arthrogram finding is a U-shaped or J-shaped extravasation of contrast in the axillary pouch.

Question 1248

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation is full and strong. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which labral pathology is most commonly associated with this finding?

. Anterior Bankart tear
. Posterior SLAP tear
. Anterior SLAP tear
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart tear


Explanation

Paralabral cysts in the spinoglenoid notch typically arise from posterior SLAP tears and compress the suprascapular nerve distal to the suprascapular notch. This causes isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus muscle, leading to external rotation weakness.

Question 1249

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture via a deltopectoral approach, how does the axillary nerve typically course in relation to the operative field?

. It lies superficial to the conjoint tendon
. It exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space
. It courses anterior to the subscapularis muscle belly
. It pierces the pectoralis major muscle
. It runs superior to the teres minor muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It lies superficial to the conjoint tendon


Explanation

The axillary nerve originates from the posterior cord, runs anterior to the subscapularis initially, but quickly courses inferior to the shoulder capsule and exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space. Surgeons must carefully protect it at the inferior border of the subscapularis.

Question 1250

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In evaluating a patient with anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is used to assess bone loss. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered "off-track" if it:

. Is completely contained within the glenoid track
. Extends medially beyond the glenoid track
. Involves less than 10% of the articular surface
. Is associated with an intact anterior labrum
. Does not engage the anterior glenoid rim in abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Is completely contained within the glenoid track


Explanation

A Hill-Sachs lesion is "off-track" if its medial margin extends further medially than the medial margin of the calculated glenoid track. Such lesions will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation, typically requiring a remplissage or bony augmentation to restore stability.

Question 1251

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his third episode of anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals a 28% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)
. Iliac crest bone grafting to the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in a contact athlete is an indication for a bony augmentation procedure, most commonly the Latarjet procedure. Soft tissue repairs alone have an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 1252

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male laborer sustained a massive, retracted, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function, active forward elevation to 100 degrees, and no glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option to improve function?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Superior labral repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears and no arthritis. Pectoralis major transfer is typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 1253

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows a 25-degree deficit in internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and a posterosuperior labral tear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subcoracoid impingement
. Internal impingement
. Primary external impingement
. SLAP tear type IV
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during extreme abduction and external rotation, causing the undersurface of the rotator cuff to impinge against the posterosuperior labrum. It is highly associated with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD).

Question 1254

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain. On physical examination, he demonstrates weakness with internal rotation when the arm is placed behind the back and lifted away from the body. An MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which physical examination test would also most likely be positive?

. Jobe's test
. Hornblower's sign
. Bear hug test
. O'Brien's active compression test
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jobe's test


Explanation

The bear hug test and the lift-off test are specific for subscapularis pathology. Hornblower's evaluates the teres minor, while Jobe's test evaluates the supraspinatus.

Question 1255

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old woman complains of bilateral shoulder instability and pain. She has a history of joint hyperlaxity. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and apprehension in multiple positions. She has failed 6 months of dedicated physical therapy. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)
. Open or arthroscopic inferior capsular shift
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

For multidirectional instability (MDI) that fails conservative management, an inferior capsular shift (open or arthroscopic) is the procedure of choice to reduce redundant capsular volume. Bony procedures like Latarjet are contraindicated.

Question 1256

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of a posterior shoulder dislocation on a standard anteroposterior (AP) view?

. Inferior displacement of the humeral head below the glenoid
. A lightbulb sign due to fixed internal rotation of the humeral head
. A prominent greater tuberosity profile
. Superior migration of the humeral head
. A Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior displacement of the humeral head below the glenoid


Explanation

On an AP radiograph, a posterior shoulder dislocation classically presents with the "lightbulb sign" due to fixed internal rotation of the humerus, hiding the greater tuberosity profile. Axillary views are required to definitively confirm the dislocation.

Question 1257

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation resulting in a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. He is manually reduced in the emergency department. Three weeks later, he continues to have severe weakness in external rotation and elevation. He has a positive Hornblower's sign. An MRI demonstrates a retracted tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with grade 3 fatty infiltration. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

. Physical therapy for 6 months
. Arthroscopic primary repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy for 6 months


Explanation

In a young patient with an irreparable posterosuperior cuff tear (indicated by high-grade fatty infiltration and retraction) and no arthritis, superior capsular reconstruction or tendon transfer is indicated. Primary repair has an unacceptably high failure rate with advanced fatty infiltration.

Question 1258

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a contraindication to isolated soft-tissue stabilization. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the treatment of choice to restore the bony arc and provide a sling effect.

Question 1259

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with inability to actively externally rotate his shoulder and a positive hornblower's sign following a massive rotator cuff tear. Assuming the subscapularis is intact and the tear is irreparable, which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Coracobrachialis transfer
. Teres major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfers are indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore active external rotation and forward elevation. Pectoralis major transfers are typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 1260

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man sustained a posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Radiographs reveal a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open posterior capsulorrhaphy
. Transfer of the subscapularis into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface is best treated with a McLaughlin procedure or its modification (transfer of the lesser tuberosity). Lesions greater than 40-50% generally require arthroplasty.