Question 1221
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsA 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors