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Question 1221

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a critical defect that is associated with unacceptably high failure rates for isolated arthroscopic soft-tissue stabilization. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the standard of care for restoring stability in this scenario.

Question 1222

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has symptomatic failure of nonoperative management for an isolated Type II SLAP tear. In this specific demographic, which surgical intervention has been shown to yield the highest patient satisfaction and return to sport rates?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotless anchors
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotted anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labrum without anchor repair
. Open subpectoral biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotless anchors


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years, biceps tenodesis demonstrates superior clinical outcomes, better pain relief, and higher return-to-sport rates compared to SLAP repair, which carries a higher risk of postoperative stiffness in this age group.

Question 1223

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal impingement of the shoulder in an elite overhead thrower typically involves the compression of which of the following structures during the late cocking/early acceleration phase?

. Articular-sided supraspinatus/infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum
. Bursal-sided supraspinatus and the coracoacromial ligament
. Subscapularis tendon and the coracoid process
. Long head of the biceps and the superior labrum
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament and anterior labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articular-sided supraspinatus/infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs during maximal abduction and external rotation when the greater tuberosity pinches the articular-sided fibers of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.

Question 1224

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old baseball pitcher presents with deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. After 3 months of physical therapy focusing on periscapular stabilization and posterior capsular stretching, his symptoms persist. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic SLAP debridement
. Open subpectoral biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Arthroscopic biceps tenotomy
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP debridement


Explanation

A Type II SLAP tear involves detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid. In a young, high-demand overhead athlete who has failed conservative management, arthroscopic SLAP repair is the traditional preferred surgical treatment.

Question 1225

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. On examination, he has pain with abduction and external rotation, which is relieved by a relocation maneuver. What is the most likely underlying arthroscopic finding?

. Undersurface fraying of the anterior supraspinatus and superior subscapularis
. Tearing of the anteroinferior labrum extending to the 6 o'clock position
. Articular-sided fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus with posterosuperior labral fraying
. A bony Bankart lesion with a reverse Hill-Sachs defect
. Subacromial bursitis and coracoacromial ligament hypertrophy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undersurface fraying of the anterior supraspinatus and superior subscapularis


Explanation

This presentation is classic for internal impingement, which occurs in overhead athletes during late cocking when the greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid. This repetitive contact leads to articular-sided rotator cuff fraying and posterosuperior labral lesions.

Question 1226

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is most likely to show denervation changes on EMG?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1227

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old man underwent an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty via a deltopectoral approach 6 weeks ago. He now complains of new-onset weakness and a sensation of anterior instability. On examination, he has increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Failure of which of the following structures is most likely responsible?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Anterior capsule
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is taken down and repaired during a standard deltopectoral approach for TSA. Postoperative failure presents with increased passive external rotation and weakness in internal rotation tests (belly-press, lift-off).

Question 1228

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old male contact athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Open capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Proximal humeral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In the setting of recurrent anterior instability with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), an isolated soft tissue repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated to restore the glenoid arc and provide a sling effect.

Question 1229

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man presents to the ER after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of right shoulder pain and is unable to externally rotate the arm past neutral. An axillary radiograph confirms a posterior shoulder dislocation with an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin)
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Coracoid transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica casting


Explanation

For locked posterior dislocations with a reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 25% to 40% of the articular surface, filling the defect is necessary to prevent recurrent instability. The modified McLaughlin procedure transfers the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect.

Question 1230

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An MRI of a 24-year-old male with recurrent shoulder instability demonstrates a 'J-sign' with extravasation of contrast into the axillary pouch. There is no labral tear identified on the glenoid rim. This finding is most consistent with which of the following injuries?

. Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear
. Bony Bankart lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)


Explanation

A HAGL lesion represents an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral attachment. On MRI arthrogram, this disrupts the normal U-shape of the axillary pouch, creating a classic 'J-sign' as contrast leaks inferiorly.

Question 1231

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The dynamic stability of the glenohumeral joint is maintained by muscular force couples. Which of the following muscle pairings constitutes the primary transverse plane force couple of the shoulder?

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid
. Subscapularis and Infraspinatus
. Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi
. Teres minor and Supraspinatus
. Biceps and Triceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and Deltoid


Explanation

The subscapularis (anterior) and the infraspinatus/teres minor (posterior) form the transverse plane force couple. They work in concert to compress the humeral head into the glenoid during active motion, maintaining concentric reduction.

Question 1232

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain. An MRI reveals a massive, irreparable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons with grade 4 fatty infiltration. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact. The patient has preserved forward elevation but profound weakness in external rotation (positive Hornblower's sign). Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer
. Subscapularis transfer
. Biceps rerouting
. Pectoralis minor transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfers are indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) to restore active external rotation and improve forward elevation in patients without significant arthritis.

Question 1233

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 16-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain. She describes a sensation of her shoulders 'slipping out of place' during routine activities. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, generalized ligamentous laxity, and symmetric multidirectional instability. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Rotator interval closure
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular stabilizers
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

The initial treatment for multidirectional instability (MDI) is a prolonged trial of physical therapy (typically 6 months) focusing on strengthening the rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizers. Operative management is reserved for refractory cases.

Question 1234

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After closed reduction, he is noted to have isolated numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder and profound weakness in shoulder abduction. Which of the following muscles, in addition to the deltoid, is primarily denervated by this nerve injury?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocations. It innervates the deltoid and the teres minor muscles, and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder (superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm).

Question 1235

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old construction worker has an MRI of the shoulder demonstrating an articular-sided partial-thickness tear of the supraspinatus tendon involving 60% of the tendon footprint (PASTA lesion). He has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. What is the standard surgical management for this lesion?

. Arthroscopic debridement only
. Biceps tenodesis
. Subacromial decompression without repair
. Completion of the tear and repair, or transtendon repair
. Latissimus dorsi transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic debridement only


Explanation

Partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesions involving greater than 50% of the tendon footprint are generally treated with surgical repair. This can be done via completing the tear and performing a standard repair, or an in situ transtendon repair.

Question 1236

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. MRI reveals a 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is indicated to directly address the humeral head defect and prevent it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim?

. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Open Bankart repair
. Humeral head allograft reconstruction
. Proximal humerus derotational osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

The Remplissage procedure involves capsulotenodesis of the infraspinatus into the Hill-Sachs defect. It is indicated for engaging Hill-Sachs lesions with subcritical (<20%) glenoid bone loss, converting an intra-articular defect to an extra-articular one.

Question 1237

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and positive lift-off and belly-press tests. MRI demonstrates a chronic, massive, irreparable tear of the subscapularis tendon. The supraspinatus and infraspinatus are completely intact. Which tendon transfer is most commonly recommended to address this specific deficit?

. Latissimus dorsi
. Lower trapezius
. Pectoralis major
. Pectoralis minor
. Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi


Explanation

A pectoralis major tendon transfer is the procedure of choice for an isolated, irreparable subscapularis tendon tear. It provides an anterior dynamic force vector that substitutes for the deficient subscapularis to restore internal rotation and transverse plane balance.

Question 1238

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old male is evaluated for chronic shoulder pain. On clinical examination, you suspect a SLAP tear. Which of the following provocative tests is characterized by the patient reporting deep shoulder pain when the arm is forward elevated to 90 degrees, adducted 10 degrees, and internally rotated against resistance, which then improves with external rotation?

. Speed's test
. Yergason's test
. O'Brien's active compression test
. Neer impingement sign
. Jobe's empty can test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Speed's test


Explanation

O'Brien's active compression test is considered positive for labral pathology if pain is elicited with the arm in internal rotation (thumb down) and relieved when the arm is in external rotation (palm up).

Question 1239

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following a primary dislocation 2 years ago. Advanced imaging demonstrates a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Open Bankart repair
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in a collision athlete is a strict indication for bony augmentation, most commonly the Latarjet procedure. Soft tissue repairs alone carry an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of critical bone loss.

Question 1240

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. The tuberosity fragment is displaced 1.5 cm superiorly. Which muscle group is the primary deforming force responsible for this superior displacement?

. Pectoralis major
. Subscapularis
. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Latissimus dorsi
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major


Explanation

The supraspinatus pulls the fractured greater tuberosity superiorly, while the infraspinatus and teres minor pull it posteriorly. The pectoralis major is the primary deforming force displacing the humeral shaft medially.