Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 45-year-old weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior shoulder while bench pressing. On examination, he has increased passive external rotation and a positive lift-off test. Which tendon is most likely injured?

Compared to single-row repair, biomechanical studies of double-row rotator cuff repair demonstrate which of the following characteristics?

In the evaluation of chronic rotator cuff tears, which of the following MRI findings is the most significant predictor of structural failure after an attempted rotator cuff repair?

A 35-year-old man presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, followed by painless weakness in external rotation and forward elevation. MRI shows no rotator cuff tear but diffuse edema in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient complains of anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by forward elevation, adduction, and internal rotation ("cross-body" movement). MRI reveals narrowing of the coracohumeral interval to 5 mm and subscapularis tendinosis. This presentation is most consistent with:

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder weakness. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals a massive, retracted tear involving both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Medial retraction of the supraspinatus tendon past the glenoid rim places which of the following structures at the greatest risk of tethering or traction injury?

A 45-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden pop in his shoulder while performing heavy bench presses. Physical examination reveals significantly increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 70-year-old patient with a chronic rotator cuff tear is evaluated for potential surgical repair. Preoperative MRI demonstrates Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus muscle. Which of the following best describes this finding and its clinical implications?

A 55-year-old active manual laborer undergoes arthroscopic repair of a supraspinatus tear and is found to have a concurrent high-grade partial tear of the long head of the biceps tendon. He is heavily reliant on arm strength and explicitly expresses concern regarding postoperative cosmetic deformity and muscle cramping. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the biceps tendon?

Incorporating the concept of margin convergence during the repair of a massive, U-shaped rotator cuff tear provides which of the following primary biomechanical benefits?

A 72-year-old woman presents with severe shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show significant superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in this patient?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain primarily occurring during the late cocking phase of throwing. Magnetic resonance arthrography reveals a partial-thickness articular-sided tear of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus, along with posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old male presents with weakness in internal rotation and a positive 'lift-off' test following a traumatic shoulder dislocation. MRI confirms an isolated, retracted tear of the subscapularis tendon. During arthroscopic repair, which specific anatomical landmark helps identify the superolateral border of the retracted subscapularis tendon?

A 30-year-old female undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for persistent shoulder pain. An articular-sided partial-thickness supraspinatus tear (PASTA lesion) is identified. The tear involves 60% of the tendon footprint depth. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old male with a massive rotator cuff tear is being evaluated for surgical repair. The surgeon assesses muscle quality on the preoperative MRI. According to the Goutallier classification, Grade 3 fatty infiltration of the rotator cuff muscles is defined as:

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. CT imaging demonstrates 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 55-year-old male fell onto his outstretched right arm. He now complains of significant shoulder weakness. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder and a positive Bear Hug test. Which tendon is ruptured?

A 19-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging

reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 24-year-old volleyball attacker presents with posterior shoulder pain during the cocking phase of serving. Exam shows a positive posterior impingement sign. Pathophysiologically, this condition is characterized by contact between the posterosuperior glenoid labrum and which structure?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with shoulder pain and weakness after a fall on an outstretched arm. Physical exam reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive lift-off test. Which of the following physical examination tests would also most likely be positive?