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Question 1181

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan indicates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Glenoid resurfacing with arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

For anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25%, a soft tissue Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bone-block augmentation, such as the Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer), is indicated to restore glenoid width and provide a dynamic sling effect.

Question 1182

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 31-year-old professional tennis player undergoes arthroscopic evaluation of his shoulder for chronic pain. A SLAP lesion is suspected. What associated normal anatomic variant is most commonly confused with a type II SLAP tear?

. Buford complex
. Sublabral foramen
. Sublabral recess
. Glenoid dysplasia
. Biceps split

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Buford complex


Explanation

A sublabral recess is a normal anatomic variant characterized by an unattached anterosuperior labrum. Unlike a type II SLAP tear, the recess has smooth margins and the biceps anchor remains firmly attached to the superior tubercle.

Question 1183

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old rock climber presents with a popping sensation in his shoulder. MRI reveals an isolated tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which physical examination test is most specific for this injury?

. O'Brien's active compression test
. Jobe's empty can test
. Bear hug test
. Neer impingement sign
. Hornblower's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. O'Brien's active compression test


Explanation

The Bear hug test, along with the lift-off and belly-press tests, are specific for evaluating the integrity of the subscapularis tendon. Hornblower's sign evaluates the teres minor, while Jobe's test evaluates the supraspinatus.

Question 1184

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Computed tomography reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage alone
. Proximal humeral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for patients with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). Arthroscopic Bankart repair in this setting carries an unacceptably high failure rate.

Question 1185

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old manual laborer has deep, aching shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear. After failing a 4-month course of physical therapy, surgery is planned. What is the most reliable surgical treatment to provide pain relief and facilitate return to work?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Debridement alone
. Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction
. Biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair


Explanation

In older patients (typically >35-40 years old), primary biceps tenodesis is highly favored over SLAP repair for Type II SLAP tears. Tenodesis provides higher rates of patient satisfaction, lower complication rates, and a lower incidence of postoperative stiffness.

Question 1186

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. A CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the anterior articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Open reduction and lesser tuberosity transfer
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization


Explanation

For a locked posterior dislocation with an anterior articular defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 20% to 40% of the humeral head, transfer of the lesser tuberosity or subscapularis into the defect (modified McLaughlin or McLaughlin procedure) is indicated to prevent recurrent engagement.

Question 1187

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collegiate football player sustains a primary anterior shoulder dislocation.

Imaging demonstrates an anteroinferior labral tear accompanied by 25% glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this athlete?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Sling immobilization and physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for anterior shoulder instability in the setting of significant glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). Arthroscopic or open Bankart repairs alone have unacceptably high failure rates when critical bone loss is present.

Question 1188

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain and decreased velocity.

Physical examination reveals 20 degrees of internal rotation and 130 degrees of external rotation in the dominant arm (contralateral internal rotation is 60 degrees). Initial treatment should emphasize which of the following?

. Anterior capsular stretching
. Posteroinferior capsular stretching
. Rotator cuff strengthening only
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Subacromial corticosteroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior capsular stretching


Explanation

The patient has Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), characterized by a loss of internal rotation due to posteroinferior capsular contracture. The first-line treatment is posteroinferior capsular stretching (e.g., "sleeper" stretches).

Question 1189

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopic repair of a massive, retracted superior rotator cuff tear, extensive medial mobilization is required. What is the generally accepted "safe zone" distance from the superior glenoid rim to avoid injury to the suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch?

. 5 mm
. 10 mm
. 15 mm
. 25 mm
. 30 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 mm


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve is located approximately 1.5 cm (15 mm) medial to the superior glenoid rim at the suprascapular notch. Dissection medial to this distance increases the risk of iatrogenic nerve injury.

Question 1190

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In a young, active patient with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) but an intact subscapularis, which of the following tendon transfers is biomechanically and clinically most appropriate to restore external rotation and elevation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Teres major transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Conjoined tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi transfer (or lower trapezius transfer) is indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore external rotation and forward elevation. Pectoralis major transfers are typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 1191

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Understanding the anatomical "footprint" of the rotator cuff is essential for proper repair. The supraspinatus footprint on the greater tuberosity is best described by which of the following medial-to-lateral dimensions?

. 5 to 7 mm
. 14 to 16 mm
. 22 to 24 mm
. 28 to 30 mm
. 32 to 35 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 to 7 mm


Explanation

Anatomical studies demonstrate that the medial-to-lateral dimension of the supraspinatus footprint on the greater tuberosity is approximately 14 to 16 mm. Its anterior-to-posterior dimension is roughly 25 mm.

Question 1192

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following patient factors has been clinically demonstrated to have the most significant negative impact on tendon-to-bone healing and functional outcomes following arthroscopic rotator cuff repair?

. Controlled diabetes mellitus
. Current tobacco smoking
. Hyperlipidemia
. Body Mass Index of 29
. Occasional NSAID use

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Controlled diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Smoking (nicotine) significantly impairs microvascular perfusion and cellular proliferation, leading to higher rates of delayed healing, nonhealing, and re-tears following rotator cuff repair.

Question 1193

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During clinical examination of a patient with shoulder pain, the examiner places the palm of the patient's hand on the opposite shoulder and attempts to pull the hand anteriorly while the patient resists. This test is highly specific for a tear of which tendon?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

This describes the "bear-hug" test, which is a highly sensitive and specific clinical examination maneuver for evaluating the integrity and strength of the subscapularis tendon.

Question 1194

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old tennis player presents with persistent shoulder pain despite conservative management. MRI reveals a Partial Articular-Sided Supraspinatus Tendon Avulsion (PASTA) lesion that involves roughly 60% of the tendon thickness. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Subacromial decompression without rotator cuff intervention
. Debridement of the tear only
. Completion of the tear and formal repair (or in situ repair)
. Biceps tenodesis alone
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial decompression without rotator cuff intervention


Explanation

Articular-sided partial rotator cuff tears involving greater than 50% of the tendon footprint thickness generally require surgical repair, either by completing the tear and repairing it or by performing a transtendon in situ repair.

Question 1195

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of his dominant shoulder. Physical examination reveals atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa, with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is most likely to reveal a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression at which anatomical location?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only its distal motor branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness and atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1196

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator cable is a thick band of capsuloligamentous tissue that transfers forces from the rotator cuff muscles to the humerus. According to the "suspension bridge" model proposed by Burkhart, in which of the following tear patterns is near-normal cuff kinematics most likely maintained?

. A tear involving only the anterior margin of the cable
. A tear disrupting the entire transverse span of the cable
. A tear located exclusively anterior to the cable
. A tear confined within the thinner crescent area with an intact cable
. A tear extending completely through the posterior cable

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A tear involving only the anterior margin of the cable


Explanation

Burkhart described the rotator cable as a suspension bridge that stress-shields the thinner, avascular crescent tissue. Tears confined strictly to the crescent area with an intact cable preserve the force transmission mechanism, often maintaining near-normal function.

Question 1197

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Accurate anatomic restoration is critical during rotator cuff repair. The native footprint of the supraspinatus tendon on the greater tuberosity is best described as having which of the following approximate dimensions?

. 5 mm medial-to-lateral and 30 mm anterior-to-posterior
. 16 mm medial-to-lateral and 25 mm anterior-to-posterior
. 25 mm medial-to-lateral and 16 mm anterior-to-posterior
. 30 mm medial-to-lateral and 5 mm anterior-to-posterior
. 10 mm medial-to-lateral and 10 mm anterior-to-posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 mm medial-to-lateral and 30 mm anterior-to-posterior


Explanation

The supraspinatus insertion footprint is roughly triangular, measuring approximately 16 mm in the medial-to-lateral dimension and 25 mm anterior-to-posterior. Understanding this anatomy is critical for achieving adequate footprint coverage during surgical repair.

Question 1198

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of a partial-thickness articular-sided rotator cuff tear (PASTA lesion), surgical repair (either via transtendinous technique or tear completion) is generally indicated over simple arthroscopic debridement when the tear involves what percentage of the native tendon thickness?

. Greater than 10%
. Greater than 25%
. Greater than 50%
. Greater than 75%
. Greater than 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 10%


Explanation

Surgical repair is generally indicated for partial-thickness rotator cuff tears that involve >50% of the tendon thickness (approximately 7-8 mm of the footprint). Tears involving <50% are typically managed with arthroscopic debridement if nonoperative measures fail.

Question 1199

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The Goutallier classification is utilized on imaging to grade fatty infiltration of the rotator cuff muscles, which correlates with repair prognosis. Which Goutallier grade is specifically defined as having more fat than muscle within the muscle belly?

. Grade 1
. Grade 2
. Grade 3
. Grade 4
. Grade 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade 1


Explanation

In the Goutallier classification, Grade 3 denotes equal amounts of fat and muscle. Grade 4 is strictly defined as having more fat than muscle within the muscle belly, indicating a poor prognosis for structural healing.

Question 1200

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic weakness in external rotation and abduction. MRI reveals a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Retraction of these tendons medial to the glenoid places which nerve at greatest risk of tethering and subsequent injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

Massive, retracted rotator cuff tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus can tether the suprascapular nerve. This most commonly occurs at the suprascapular notch or spinoglenoid notch, leading to denervation and further atrophy.