Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain, decreased throwing velocity, and pain specifically during the late cocking phase. Clinical examination reveals a positive O'Brien test. What pathomechanical process is most commonly responsible for this patient's condition?

A 28-year-old male presents with recurrent apprehension 1 year after undergoing a Latarjet procedure. CT imaging reveals significant resorption of the coracoid graft. What technical error is most commonly associated with graft osteolysis following a Latarjet procedure?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an anterior glenoid bone defect of 15% and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates an anteroinferior labral tear and 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 24-year-old male overhead athlete undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Findings include an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate management alongside an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shoulder pain and the arm locked in internal rotation after sustaining a severe electrical shock. Radiographs confirm a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 25% of the articular surface. Following closed reduction, what is the preferred definitive surgical intervention?

A 28-year-old man undergoes a Latarjet procedure for refractory anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he complains of weakness in elbow flexion and numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. Clinical examination reveals a positive O'Brien's test. MRI arthrogram demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear without concomitant rotator cuff pathology. Based on current evidence, what is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of recurrent instability following an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair for anterior shoulder instability?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and feeling like her shoulders slip out of place. Examination reveals generalized ligamentous laxity, a positive sulcus sign, and apprehension in anterior, posterior, and inferior directions. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain exclusively during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus tendon and a peel-back lesion of the posterosuperior labrum. What is the primary diagnosis?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents for definitive management. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss with an associated engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a witnessed seizure. Imaging reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion comprising 30% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. After successful open reduction, the shoulder remains unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate treatment for the humeral head defect?

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic imaging reveals a Bankart lesion, 10% anterior glenoid bone loss, and a large Hill-Sachs lesion that engages the anterior glenoid rim on dynamic 3D CT modeling. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department after falling on his outstretched hand. Radiographs confirm an anteroinferior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, he notes decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. If this neurologic deficit persists, weakness in which of the following muscles is most likely to be observed?

A 24-year-old male sustains a shoulder injury following a seizure. Examination reveals the arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 29-year-old overhead throwing athlete develops gradual onset of posterior shoulder pain. Examination demonstrates a positive impingement sign and localized tenderness at the posterior joint line when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism for this condition?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with a "dead arm" and pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear. What is the most widely recommended initial management?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of vague deep shoulder pain. On physical exam, he has decreased internal rotation of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. A peel-back sign is positive. What is the primary pathologic mechanism contributing to his diagnosis?