Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a paralabral cyst, typically results in isolated weakness of which muscle?

The quadrilateral space of the shoulder transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Which muscle defines the superior boundary of this space?

The subscapularis muscle is a crucial dynamic anterior stabilizer of the glenohumeral joint. What is its primary bony footprint insertion site?

A 22-year-old collegiate volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Shoulder abduction and internal rotation are full strength. There is isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

An elite overhead throwing athlete presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus but normal supraspinatus bulk. Which anatomical structure is most likely compressing the affected nerve?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging reveals a 22% anterior glenoid bone defect and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter reports vague, deep posterior shoulder pain and a painful clicking sensation during the eccentric phase of the bench press. Examination demonstrates a positive jerk test. What is the most likely pathological finding?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and feeling like her shoulders 'slip out' when reaching overhead. She has a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity. After 9 months of dedicated physical therapy, she remains symptomatic. What is the surgical treatment of choice?

During an arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, you note that the labrum is completely intact, but the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is avulsed off the humeral neck. What is the correct terminology for this specific lesion?

During a Latarjet procedure for anterior shoulder instability, what is the anatomical landmark that dictates the maximum safe proximal osteotomy of the coracoid process to avoid destabilizing the clavicle and endangering the suprascapular nerve?

A 28-year-old rock climber with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations is found to have an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion but minimal glenoid bone loss. An arthroscopic Bankart repair with 'remplissage' is planned. Which structure is tenodesed into the humeral defect during this adjunctive procedure?

A 20-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization for recurrent shoulder instability, an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Glenoid bone loss is measured at 8%. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjunctive procedure?

A 21-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with vague posterior shoulder pain exacerbated by bench pressing. Examination reveals increased posterior translation with a load-and-shift test and pain with the jerk test. What is the initial treatment of choice?

A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher reports a "dead arm" and deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. A type II SLAP tear is suspected. Which of the following pathomechanical processes is most responsible for this specific injury pattern?

A 30-year-old man continues to have anterior shoulder instability after a seemingly successful arthroscopic Bankart repair. A revision MRI arthrogram is obtained.

The imaging demonstrates contrast extending inferiorly into the axillary pouch with a characteristic "J-sign" at the humeral insertion of the capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates an anterior glenoid bone defect.

At what percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is a Latarjet procedure or bone grafting generally indicated over an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 35-year-old male with a history of a seizure disorder presents with an unrecognized locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenohumeral cartilage is otherwise preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?