Question 1121
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsA 72-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and an inability to actively raise his arm above 45 degrees. He has a positive drop arm sign. MRI reveals a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus and teres minor. The subscapularis is intact. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty