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Question 1121

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 72-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and an inability to actively raise his arm above 45 degrees. He has a positive drop arm sign. MRI reveals a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus and teres minor. The subscapularis is intact. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression and debridement
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Lower trapezius tendon transfer
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Pectoralis major tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

The patient exhibits pseudoparalysis (inability to actively elevate the arm above 90 degrees) in the setting of an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice to restore forward elevation by maximizing the mechanical advantage of the deltoid.

Question 1122

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An en face 3D CT scan of the glenoid demonstrates significant anterior bone loss. At what percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, warranting a bony augmentation procedure?

. 5%
. 10%
. 25%
. 40%
. 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 25%


Explanation

Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone is associated with unacceptably high failure rates when anterior glenoid bone loss exceeds 20 to 25%. In such cases, a bone block augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure, is indicated to restore stability.

Question 1123

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan imaging demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a contraindication to isolated soft-tissue repair. A coracoid transfer (Latarjet) restores glenoid bone stock and provides a dynamic sling effect from the conjoint tendon.

Question 1124

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher reports posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals posterosuperior labral fraying and a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of this injury pattern?

. Subcoracoid impingement
. Primary outlet impingement
. Internal impingement
. SLAP peel-back mechanism
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during maximum abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). The greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid, causing articular-sided rotator cuff tears and posterosuperior labral lesions.

Question 1125

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and painless weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At what anatomical location is this cyst most likely compressing the suprascapular nerve?

. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Subcoracoid space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated atrophy. Compression further proximal at the suprascapular notch would involve both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1126

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Latarjet procedure
. Inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In high-impact collision athletes with significant anterior glenoid bone loss (greater than 20-25%), a coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is indicated. This restores the glenoid track and provides a reliable osseoligamentous sling, preventing recurrent instability.

Question 1127

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain and painful catching despite 6 months of targeted physical therapy and NSAIDs. An MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. He has no other rotator cuff pathology. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Isolated biceps tenotomy
. Continued non-operative management
. Coracoacromial ligament release
. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years, especially heavy laborers, biceps tenodesis yields higher satisfaction rates, reliable pain relief, and lower complication rates compared to arthroscopic SLAP repair, which is prone to postoperative stiffness.

Question 1128

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of external rotation in the dominant shoulder. MRI shows an isolated paralabral cyst. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will result in denervation of which of the following muscles?

. Supraspinatus only
. Infraspinatus only
. Both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus only


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Therefore, compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus denervation.

Question 1129

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will result in isolated weakness of which of the following muscles?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Deltoid
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Therefore, compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 1130

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure, the conjoined tendon is retracted to expose the anterior glenoid. The musculocutaneous nerve must be protected. At what average distance distal to the coracoid process does this nerve enter the coracobrachialis muscle?

. 1-2 cm
. 3-8 cm
. 10-12 cm
. 14-16 cm
. 18-20 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1-2 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis approximately 5 cm (range 3-8 cm) distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Aggressive distal retraction of the conjoined tendon can cause traction neuropraxia.

Question 1131

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of the infraspinatus without supraspinatus involvement. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve is suspected. At what anatomical location does this isolated compression typically occur?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Subcoracoid space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus because the branches to the supraspinatus depart proximal to this notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 1132

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old volleyball player is found to have a large paralabral ganglion cyst extending into the spinoglenoid notch. Physical examination is most likely to demonstrate which of the following isolated findings?

. Weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation
. Weakness in shoulder external rotation with normal abduction
. Weakness in shoulder abduction with normal external rotation
. Weakness in shoulder internal rotation
. Complete loss of active forward elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated denervation of the infraspinatus, causing weakness in external rotation with preserved abduction.

Question 1133

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following muscles is most likely affected?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus, then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch causes isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 1134

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic rotator interval release for adhesive capsulitis, the surgeon must identify the structures comprising the interval. Which two tendons form the superior and inferior borders of the rotator interval, respectively?

. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus
. Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
. Subscapularis and Teres Minor
. Long head of biceps and Supraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis


Explanation

The rotator interval is a triangular anatomical space bordered superiorly by the anterior margin of the supraspinatus tendon and inferiorly by the superior margin of the subscapularis tendon. It contains the long head of the biceps tendon and coracohumeral ligament.

Question 1135

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing a surgical dislocation of the hip for a femoroacetabular impingement procedure, the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery is protected by preserving which of the following muscles?

. Piriformis
. Obturator externus
. Quadratus femoris
. Gluteus medius
. Superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus. Preserving the obturator externus during surgical dislocation protects the main blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 1136

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient undergoes arthroscopic shoulder surgery for a biceps pulley lesion. The rotator interval is evaluated. Which of the following structures forms the inferior border of the rotator interval?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bounded superiorly by the anterior margin of the supraspinatus, inferiorly by the superior margin of the subscapularis, and medially by the coracoid process. It contains the long head of the biceps tendon, SGHL, and coracohumeral ligament.

Question 1137

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player develops an isolated paralytic ganglion cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Physical examination is most likely to demonstrate which of the following isolated deficits?

. Weakness of external rotation with normal abduction
. Weakness of abduction with normal external rotation
. Weakness of both external rotation and abduction
. Sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the deltoid
. Sensory loss over the spine of the scapula

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness of external rotation with normal abduction


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch occurs distal to the motor branches supplying the supraspinatus. This results in isolated weakness of the infraspinatus, causing an external rotation deficit with preserved abduction.

Question 1138

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and selective atrophy of the teres minor muscle on MRI. Compression of the axillary nerve in the quadrilateral space is diagnosed. What are the superior and inferior muscular borders of this space?

. Superior: Teres major; Inferior: Teres minor
. Superior: Teres minor; Inferior: Teres major
. Superior: Subscapularis; Inferior: Latissimus dorsi
. Superior: Supraspinatus; Inferior: Teres minor
. Superior: Infraspinatus; Inferior: Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior: Teres major; Inferior: Teres minor


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 1139

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Based on the diagram shown in Figure 16, what muscle derives its innervation from the nerve identified by the letter "A"?

. Pectoralis minor
. Teres minor
. Subclavius
. Brachialis
. Supraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis minor


Explanation

The nerve labeled A is the axillary nerve, a branch from the posterior cord. The posterior cord innervates the subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, teres major and minor, deltoid, triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensors of the forearm. The axillary nerve innervates the teres minor and deltoid. The pectoralis minor is innervated by the medial cord. The supraspinatus and the subclavius are innervated by the superior trunk. The brachialis is innervated by the lateral cord. Moore K: Anatomy, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Williams and Wilkins, 1992.

Question 1140

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator interval is a critical anatomical space in the anterior shoulder. Which of the following structures is NOT considered a border or content of the rotator interval?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Teres minor tendon
. Superior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The rotator interval is bordered by the supraspinatus superiorly and the subscapularis inferiorly. It contains the long head of the biceps tendon, the coracohumeral ligament, and the superior glenohumeral ligament.