Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

During the physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, which of the following tests is considered the most sensitive and specific for detecting an isolated tear of the upper border of the subscapularis tendon?

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of the right shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy in the infraspinatus fossa, while supraspinatus strength and bulk are perfectly normal. At which anatomic location is nerve compression most likely occurring?

A 24-year-old man suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation. Prior to reduction, he has decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his deltoid. Due to the involved nerve, which muscle's function must be most closely monitored for associated weakness?

A 22-year-old collision athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 30% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 70-year-old man presents with chronic, massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Physical examination reveals pseudoparalysis of the shoulder with active forward elevation limited to 40 degrees. MRI demonstrates Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration of the torn tendons, but the teres minor and subscapularis remain intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for identifying a SLAP lesion in this patient?

A 36-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a large paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following muscle denervation patterns is most likely present?

A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent shoulder pain due to a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. Given his age and occupation, which surgical procedure is associated with the most reliable clinical outcome and lowest rate of stiffness?

A 19-year-old college football player sustains an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. MRI confirms an anterior labral tear (Bankart lesion). If he is treated nonoperatively with a sling, what is his approximate risk of recurrent instability?

A 35-year-old man presents to the ER after a grand mal seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation. An AP radiograph shows a 'lightbulb sign.' What is the most common associated bony defect in this injury pattern?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent shoulder pain. MRI confirms a Type II SLAP tear. After failing conservative management, surgical intervention is planned. To minimize the risk of post-operative stiffness and reoperation in this demographic, what is the preferred procedure?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% bone loss of the anterior/inferior glenoid. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Examination reveals an intact subscapularis and deltoid, but he has significant weakness in active external rotation and forward elevation. Which of the following tendon transfers is the most appropriate surgical treatment to restore function?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations undergoes advanced imaging. A 3D CT scan reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone defect. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler has experienced multiple anterior shoulder dislocations. A recent CT scan indicates 30% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent recurrent instability?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of multiple recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations undergoes evaluation. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player presents with his third anterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an engaged Hill-Sachs lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old laborer with chronic shoulder pain has failed 6 months of physical therapy. MRI demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear without rotator cuff pathology. Based on recent literature, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable functional outcome in this demographic?