Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

Following a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation, a patient is unable to actively abduct the arm and has decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Due to the most likely nerve injury, which of the following muscles will also exhibit weakness?

A 55-year-old active woman sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated displaced greater tuberosity fracture. After successful closed reduction of the glenohumeral joint, radiographs show the greater tuberosity remains displaced 10 mm superiorly. What is the recommended treatment?

During arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a lesion is noted where the anteroinferior labrum is avulsed but displaced medially along the glenoid neck with an intact periosteal sleeve. This pathoanatomic lesion is best described as an:

A 19-year-old college football player experiences recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals an impaction fracture on the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head. What is the proper eponym for this osseous defect?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals a glenoid bone loss of 28%. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 45-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain and an inability to externally rotate his arm following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Examination shows the arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs confirm a posterior shoulder dislocation with a 45% anteromedial humeral head impression defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion). What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 65-year-old male presents with severe right shoulder pain after experiencing a grand mal seizure. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation on the axillary view. What associated bony defect is most likely present on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head?

A 30-year-old male sustains a medial subtalar dislocation while playing basketball. After urgent closed reduction, the post-reduction CT scan demonstrates an impaction fracture of the anterolateral talar head. This lesion is conceptually analogous to which injury in the shoulder?

A 42-year-old male presents with isolated weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. MRI shows a ganglion cyst compressing a nerve. At what anatomical location is the compression most likely occurring?

A 50-year-old man complains of inability to internally rotate his arm behind his back following a fall. Examination shows increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. The lift-off and belly-press tests are positive. Which tendon is ruptured?

A 22-year-old man presents to the ER after a seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation. An axillary radiograph reveals a posterior shoulder dislocation with a 30% reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old female presents with severe shoulder pain. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head. Which physical exam finding would most reliably indicate a massive, irreparable posterior-superior rotator cuff tear involving the teres minor?

A 22-year-old football player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 27% bone loss of the anteroinferior glenoid. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent dislocation?

When evaluating massive rotator cuff tears on MRI, the Goutallier classification system is frequently used. What specific pathologic feature does this system grade to determine the prognosis of a rotator cuff repair?

A 50-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder weakness. Clinical examination demonstrates a positive lift-off test and an asymmetric increase in passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which rotator cuff tendon is predominantly injured?

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function, active forward elevation to 140 degrees, and no glenohumeral arthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old man complains of weakness and pain in his shoulder following a fall. Examination demonstrates a positive 'belly-press' test and a positive 'lift-off' test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 20-year-old football player sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. MRI reveals an avulsion of the anterior labroligamentous complex with an attached avulsed fragment of glenoid bone. What is the specific eponym for this lesion?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports deep posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals undersurface fraying of the rotator cuff. Where is this lesion most likely located?