Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 42-year-old manual laborer presents with anterior shoulder pain and mechanical catching. MRI reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After 6 months of failed conservative management, he is scheduled for surgery. Based on current literature, what is the most appropriate surgical procedure for this patient?

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 60 degrees. Passive elevation is preserved. MRI shows a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of postoperative stiffness and maximize functional return?

During diagnostic arthroscopy for chronic anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an impaction fracture of the anteroinferior glenoid rim with an associated disruption of the adjacent articular cartilage and labrum. What is the standard eponymous term for this lesion?

A 24-year-old overhead throwing athlete complains of deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Which of the following mechanisms is most responsible for this specific injury pattern in the overhead athlete?

A 21-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan indicates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 31-year-old volleyball player complains of isolated painless weakness in external rotation of his dominant shoulder. Examination reveals infraspinatus atrophy but normal supraspinatus strength. MRI is most likely to show a cyst in which location?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms a Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) tear. After failing 6 months of conservative management, surgical intervention is planned. Evidence suggests that which of the following produces the most reliable clinical outcomes and highest return to sport in this age group?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical exam reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side, with a total arc of motion deficit of 15 degrees. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A 24-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows increased external rotation and a 25-degree loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary pathologic mechanism of this condition?

A 45-year-old manual laborer has a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function and severe external rotation weakness. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to restore active external rotation?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. Current literature suggests that compared to primary SLAP repair, primary biceps tenodesis in this age group will likely result in:

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging and diagnostic arthroscopy reveal an anteroinferior glenoid bone loss of 28%. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability and minimize recurrence in this patient?

A 14-year-old boy underwent in situ pinning for a stable SCFE 6 months ago. He now presents with worsening hip pain, a severe limp, and profound global restriction of hip motion. Radiographs show concentric narrowing of the joint space to less than 3 mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old male presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. He has a history of mild SCFE treated with in situ pinning at age 13. Radiographs show a prominent alpha angle and a "pistol grip" deformity. What type of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is most likely occurring?

A 13-year-old girl underwent an uncomplicated in situ pinning for a stable SCFE 6 months ago. She now returns with a stiff, painful hip and severe limitation in all planes of motion. Radiographs demonstrate profound global joint space narrowing (less than 3 mm). What is the most likely etiology of her current condition?

A 65-year-old woman sustains a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, she continues to have profound weakness in active shoulder abduction and external rotation. The most likely cause is:

A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 24-year-old sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Closed reduction in the emergency department is unsuccessful despite adequate procedural sedation and muscle relaxation. Which structure is most likely interposing and preventing closed reduction?